Study Guide, Nursing Pharmacology Exam Prep, Drug Therapy Practice
Questions with Answers & Rationales, Medication Administration,
Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, Drug Classifications, Dosage
Calculations, Medication Safety, Drug Interactions, Adverse Effects,
Contraindications, Cardiovascular Drugs, Antibiotics, Analgesics, Endocrine
Medications & Patient Education
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via the sublingual
route. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the patient?
A. "Swallow the tablet whole with a full glass of water."
B. "Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing."
C. "Place the tablet under your tongue and allow it to dissolve."
D. "Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "Place the tablet under your tongue and allow it to
dissolve."
Rationale: Sublingual administration requires placing the medication under the
tongue to allow dissolution and absorption through the highly vascular oral
mucosa. Swallowing, chewing, or crushing the tablet would alter the absorption
rate and reduce therapeutic effectiveness. This route bypasses the first-pass
effect, providing rapid systemic absorption.
Question 2: A nurse is reviewing the pharmacokinetic process of a newly
prescribed oral medication. Which phase describes the movement of the drug
from the gastrointestinal tract into the systemic circulation?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Excretion
D. Absorption
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Absorption
Rationale: Absorption is the process by which a drug moves from its site of
administration into the bloodstream. Distribution involves the transport of the
drug to tissues, metabolism refers to biotransformation (primarily in the liver),
and excretion is the elimination of the drug from the body.
,Question 3: A patient with a history of liver cirrhosis is prescribed a medication
that undergoes extensive hepatic metabolism. Which dosage adjustment should
the nurse anticipate?
A. Increased dose due to enhanced clearance
B. Decreased dose or extended dosing interval
C. No adjustment is necessary for hepatic impairment
D. Intravenous route to bypass hepatic metabolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Decreased dose or extended dosing interval
Rationale: Liver cirrhosis impairs hepatic drug metabolism, resulting in decreased
clearance and prolonged half-life of hepatically metabolized medications. To
prevent drug accumulation and toxicity, the prescriber should reduce the dose or
extend the interval between doses.
Question 4: A nurse is administering a drug with a narrow therapeutic index.
Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Administering the drug with a full meal
B. Monitoring serum drug levels and assessing for toxicity
C. Administering the medication only once daily
D. Diluting the medication in a large volume of IV fluid
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Monitoring serum drug levels and assessing for toxicity
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means the margin between therapeutic
and toxic doses is very small. Medications such as digoxin, warfarin, lithium, and
phenytoin require vigilant monitoring of serum levels and clinical signs of toxicity
to ensure patient safety.
Question 5: A patient taking oral morphine reports inadequate pain relief. The
nurse explains that a significant portion of the drug is inactivated before
reaching systemic circulation. Which phenomenon accounts for this?
A. Protein binding
B. First-pass effect
C. Blood-brain barrier restriction
D. Renal tubular reabsorption
,CORRECT ANSWER: B. First-pass effect
Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when orally administered drugs are
absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and transported via the portal vein to
the liver, where a substantial portion is metabolized before reaching systemic
circulation. This reduces bioavailability and may necessitate higher oral doses or
alternative routes.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving warfarin who is prescribed
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Serum potassium
CORRECT ANSWER: C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibits CYP2C9 and displaces warfarin
from albumin, potentiating its anticoagulant effect and increasing bleeding risk.
The INR must be monitored closely to assess for over-anticoagulation and guide
dose adjustment.
Question 7: A patient receiving furosemide daily has a potassium level of 3.1
mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Document the finding as within normal limits
B. Encourage increased intake of potassium-rich foods
C. Hold the next dose and notify the provider
D. Administer the next dose as prescribed
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hold the next dose and notify the provider
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (normal range:
3.5–5.0 mEq/L). Loop diuretics such as furosemide promote potassium excretion,
increasing the risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should hold the dose,
notify the provider, and anticipate orders for potassium supplementation or
dietary intervention.
, Question 8: A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine and regular
insulin to a patient with diabetes. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Draw up glargine first, then regular insulin in the same syringe
B. Draw up regular insulin first, then glargine in the same syringe
C. Prepare two separate injections at different sites
D. Mix both insulins in a single vial before drawing up
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Prepare two separate injections at different sites
Rationale: Insulin glargine has a low pH and must never be mixed with any other
insulin in the same syringe, as this alters its absorption and causes precipitation.
Regular insulin may be mixed with intermediate-acting insulins like NPH, but not
with long-acting analogs such as glargine.
Question 9: A nurse is reviewing the mechanism of action of a competitive
antagonist medication. Which statement best describes this action?
A. The drug binds to the receptor and produces a maximal response
B. The drug binds to the receptor and prevents the agonist from producing its
effect
C. The drug increases the number of available receptors
D. The drug enhances the natural neurotransmitter's action
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The drug binds to the receptor and prevents the agonist
from producing its effect
Rationale: A competitive antagonist binds to the same receptor site as the agonist
but does not activate the receptor, thereby blocking the agonist's effect. This
antagonism can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the agonist.
Examples include naloxone (opioid antagonist) and flumazenil (benzodiazepine
antagonist).
Question 10: A patient with hypoalbuminemia is prescribed a highly protein-
bound drug (95%). Which effect is most likely to occur?
A. Decreased risk of adverse effects
B. Increased free drug concentration and greater pharmacological effect
C. Rapid renal excretion of the drug
D. Decreased drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract