Virtual ATI Green Light Comprehensive Predictor 2026/2027 | Virtual-ATI NCLEX-
RN Green Light Comprehensive Predictor Study Guide & Practice Questions | ATI
Virtual-ATI Green Light Exam Prep, Comprehensive Predictor Review, NCLEX-RN
Practice Questions, NGN-Style Clinical Judgment, Case Studies, Prioritization,
Delegation, Pharmacology, Fundamentals, Adult Medical-Surgical Nursing,
Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Community Health, Leadership &
Management, Patient Safety, Care Coordination & Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should
the nurse assess first?
A. A client who is 2 days postoperative and reports pain at a level of 5/10
B. A client who is a new admission with blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg,
heart rate 120/min, pale, and diaphoretic
C. A client who has dementia and is attempting to get out of bed without
assistance
D. A client who is requesting pain medication 30 minutes before the next
scheduled dose
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A client who is a new admission with blood
pressure 90/50 mm Hg, heart rate 120/min, pale, and diaphoretic
Rationale: Hypotension, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis indicate
possible shock (hypovolemic, septic, or cardiogenic), which is a life-
threatening emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
The other clients have important but non-emergent needs.
Question 2: A charge nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate for the nurse
to delegate?
A. Assessing a client's lung sounds
B. Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
C. Measuring orthostatic blood pressure
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a pain medication
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Measuring orthostatic blood pressure
Rationale: UAPs can perform routine vital signs, including orthostatic blood
pressure measurements, as this is a predictable task requiring no nursing
judgment. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation require RN licensure.
Question 3: A nurse finds a client lying on the floor. What is the
nurse's first action?
,A. Call the provider
B. Assess the client for injury
C. Complete an incident report
D. Help the client back to bed
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Assess the client for injury
Rationale: The nurse must first assess the client's condition—level of
consciousness, breathing, bleeding, and pain—before moving the client or
taking other actions. Moving without assessment could worsen injuries.
Question 4: A client is on contact precautions for Clostridioides
difficile. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Wear an N95 respirator when entering the room
B. Use alcohol-based hand rub after removing gloves
C. Perform hand hygiene with soap and water
D. Keep the door closed at all times
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Perform hand hygiene with soap and water
Rationale: C. difficile spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand rub. Soap
and water are required for mechanical removal of spores. Contact
precautions require gloves and gown, not an N95.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days
postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. The nurse
observes a 5 cm area of bright red drainage on the surgical
dressing. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the surgeon immediately
B. Reinforce the dressing with sterile gauze
C. Mark the perimeter of the drainage on the dressing
D. Change the dressing completely
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Mark the perimeter of the drainage on the
dressing
Rationale: Marking the drainage perimeter allows objective monitoring for
ongoing bleeding without disrupting the surgical site or introducing
infection. Immediate notification or dressing changes are reserved for
excessive or expanding drainage.
,Question 6: A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who
has chronic kidney disease. Which value requires the most
immediate intervention?
A. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
B. Serum sodium 135 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
D. Blood urea nitrogen 38 mg/dL
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium greater than 5.0 mEq/L) in a client
with CKD poses a high risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and
requires immediate intervention. The other values are abnormal but not
immediately life-threatening.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client who has type 2 diabetes
mellitus about foot care. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?
A. "I will soak my feet in warm water for 20 minutes daily."
B. "I will trim my toenails straight across."
C. "I will apply lotion between my toes to prevent dryness."
D. "I will walk barefoot only inside my home."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will trim my toenails straight across."
Rationale: Trimming toenails straight across prevents ingrown nails and
reduces the risk of skin breakdown. Soaking feet, applying lotion between
toes, and walking barefoot all increase the risk of maceration, infection, or
injury.
Question 8: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion.
Which action is the highest priority before initiating the
transfusion?
A. Obtain baseline vital signs
B. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
C. Verify the client's identity and blood product with another nurse
D. Assess the client's lung sounds
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Verify the client's identity and blood
product with another nurse
, Rationale: Verification of client identity and blood compatibility is the
absolute priority to prevent a fatal hemolytic transfusion reaction. Baseline
vital signs and other assessments are necessary but follow verification.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin via
continuous IV infusion. The client's aPTT is 110 seconds. Which
action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the next scheduled dose
B. Decrease the infusion rate by 50%
C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider
D. Increase the infusion rate to achieve therapeutic levels
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider
Rationale: An aPTT greater than 100 seconds indicates a high risk for
hemorrhage. The infusion must be stopped immediately, and the provider
notified. The antidote is protamine sulfate.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric
tube set to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates the
tube is functioning properly?
A. The client reports persistent nausea
B. The pH of aspirated gastric fluid is 7.5
C. The client's abdomen is soft and non-distended
D. There is continuous bubbling in the suction canister
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The client's abdomen is soft and non-
distended
Rationale: A soft, non-distended abdomen indicates effective gastric
decompression. Nausea suggests poor function, pH 7.5 is too alkaline for
gastric contents, and continuous bubbling is not expected with low
intermittent suction.
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client who had a bowel surgery
and has an NG tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which
assessment finding indicates the tube might not be functioning
properly?
A. Wall suction set to 60 mm Hg
B. Drainage fluid is greenish-yellow
RN Green Light Comprehensive Predictor Study Guide & Practice Questions | ATI
Virtual-ATI Green Light Exam Prep, Comprehensive Predictor Review, NCLEX-RN
Practice Questions, NGN-Style Clinical Judgment, Case Studies, Prioritization,
Delegation, Pharmacology, Fundamentals, Adult Medical-Surgical Nursing,
Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Community Health, Leadership &
Management, Patient Safety, Care Coordination & Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should
the nurse assess first?
A. A client who is 2 days postoperative and reports pain at a level of 5/10
B. A client who is a new admission with blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg,
heart rate 120/min, pale, and diaphoretic
C. A client who has dementia and is attempting to get out of bed without
assistance
D. A client who is requesting pain medication 30 minutes before the next
scheduled dose
CORRECT ANSWER: B. A client who is a new admission with blood
pressure 90/50 mm Hg, heart rate 120/min, pale, and diaphoretic
Rationale: Hypotension, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis indicate
possible shock (hypovolemic, septic, or cardiogenic), which is a life-
threatening emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
The other clients have important but non-emergent needs.
Question 2: A charge nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate for the nurse
to delegate?
A. Assessing a client's lung sounds
B. Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
C. Measuring orthostatic blood pressure
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a pain medication
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Measuring orthostatic blood pressure
Rationale: UAPs can perform routine vital signs, including orthostatic blood
pressure measurements, as this is a predictable task requiring no nursing
judgment. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation require RN licensure.
Question 3: A nurse finds a client lying on the floor. What is the
nurse's first action?
,A. Call the provider
B. Assess the client for injury
C. Complete an incident report
D. Help the client back to bed
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Assess the client for injury
Rationale: The nurse must first assess the client's condition—level of
consciousness, breathing, bleeding, and pain—before moving the client or
taking other actions. Moving without assessment could worsen injuries.
Question 4: A client is on contact precautions for Clostridioides
difficile. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Wear an N95 respirator when entering the room
B. Use alcohol-based hand rub after removing gloves
C. Perform hand hygiene with soap and water
D. Keep the door closed at all times
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Perform hand hygiene with soap and water
Rationale: C. difficile spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand rub. Soap
and water are required for mechanical removal of spores. Contact
precautions require gloves and gown, not an N95.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days
postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. The nurse
observes a 5 cm area of bright red drainage on the surgical
dressing. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the surgeon immediately
B. Reinforce the dressing with sterile gauze
C. Mark the perimeter of the drainage on the dressing
D. Change the dressing completely
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Mark the perimeter of the drainage on the
dressing
Rationale: Marking the drainage perimeter allows objective monitoring for
ongoing bleeding without disrupting the surgical site or introducing
infection. Immediate notification or dressing changes are reserved for
excessive or expanding drainage.
,Question 6: A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who
has chronic kidney disease. Which value requires the most
immediate intervention?
A. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
B. Serum sodium 135 mEq/L
C. Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
D. Blood urea nitrogen 38 mg/dL
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium greater than 5.0 mEq/L) in a client
with CKD poses a high risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and
requires immediate intervention. The other values are abnormal but not
immediately life-threatening.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client who has type 2 diabetes
mellitus about foot care. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?
A. "I will soak my feet in warm water for 20 minutes daily."
B. "I will trim my toenails straight across."
C. "I will apply lotion between my toes to prevent dryness."
D. "I will walk barefoot only inside my home."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will trim my toenails straight across."
Rationale: Trimming toenails straight across prevents ingrown nails and
reduces the risk of skin breakdown. Soaking feet, applying lotion between
toes, and walking barefoot all increase the risk of maceration, infection, or
injury.
Question 8: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion.
Which action is the highest priority before initiating the
transfusion?
A. Obtain baseline vital signs
B. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
C. Verify the client's identity and blood product with another nurse
D. Assess the client's lung sounds
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Verify the client's identity and blood
product with another nurse
, Rationale: Verification of client identity and blood compatibility is the
absolute priority to prevent a fatal hemolytic transfusion reaction. Baseline
vital signs and other assessments are necessary but follow verification.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin via
continuous IV infusion. The client's aPTT is 110 seconds. Which
action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the next scheduled dose
B. Decrease the infusion rate by 50%
C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider
D. Increase the infusion rate to achieve therapeutic levels
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider
Rationale: An aPTT greater than 100 seconds indicates a high risk for
hemorrhage. The infusion must be stopped immediately, and the provider
notified. The antidote is protamine sulfate.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric
tube set to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates the
tube is functioning properly?
A. The client reports persistent nausea
B. The pH of aspirated gastric fluid is 7.5
C. The client's abdomen is soft and non-distended
D. There is continuous bubbling in the suction canister
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The client's abdomen is soft and non-
distended
Rationale: A soft, non-distended abdomen indicates effective gastric
decompression. Nausea suggests poor function, pH 7.5 is too alkaline for
gastric contents, and continuous bubbling is not expected with low
intermittent suction.
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client who had a bowel surgery
and has an NG tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which
assessment finding indicates the tube might not be functioning
properly?
A. Wall suction set to 60 mm Hg
B. Drainage fluid is greenish-yellow
