BIOL 252 Human Anatomy & Physiology II w/Lab | Final Exam
Review 90+ Questions and Answers -Summary | LockDown Browser
| Portage Learning
250-Question Original Practice Review • Answer key embedded • Built from the current BIOL 252 course outcomes and lab objectives
Heart schematic
R atrium → R ventricle → lungs L atrium → L ventricle → aorta
Respiratory schematic
Air: nose → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → alveoli
Module 1 — Blood
1. Which plasma protein contributes most directly to colloid osmotic pressure?
• Immunoglobulin E
• Hemoglobin
• Fibrin
■ Albumin
2. Which leukocyte is typically the most abundant circulating white blood cell?
• Basophil
• Monocyte
■ Neutrophil
• Eosinophil
3. Which leukocyte is especially associated with parasitic infections and allergic responses?
■ Eosinophil
• Platelet
• Neutrophil
• Monocyte
4. Which leukocyte releases histamine and heparin during inflammatory responses?
• Lymphocyte
• Monocyte
■ Basophil
• Erythrocyte
5. Which leukocyte can leave the bloodstream and differentiate into a macrophage in tissues?
■ Monocyte
• Basophil
• Neutrophil
• Eosinophil
6. What is the major role of platelets in hemostasis?
• Destroying old erythrocytes
• Carrying oxygen
• Producing antibodies
■ Forming the initial platelet plug and supporting coagulation
7. The hormone erythropoietin most directly stimulates which process?
• Antibody secretion
• Fibrin breakdown
• Platelet destruction
■ Erythrocyte production
BIOL 252 • Original 250-question final review • Not an official Portage Learning exam Page 1
, 8. Which organ is the major source of erythropoietin in adults?
• Liver
■ Kidney
• Thymus
• Spleen
9. The heme portion of hemoglobin contains which mineral?
■ Iron
• Sodium
• Potassium
• Calcium
10. A patient with reduced hemoglobin would most directly have impaired:
• Blood clot formation
• Lymph flow
• Antibody specificity
■ Oxygen-carrying capacity
11. What is the first vascular response immediately after a small vessel is injured?
• Clot retraction
• RBC agglutination
■ Vascular spasm
• Fibrinolysis
12. What is the purpose of the platelet plug?
• Dissolve fibrin
• Carry oxygen to the wound
■ Temporarily seal the damaged vessel
• Activate erythropoietin
13. Thrombin converts which soluble plasma protein into insoluble strands?
• Albumin
• Hemoglobin
• Globulin
■ Fibrinogen
14. Fibrin primarily functions to:
• Digest bacteria
• Carry carbon dioxide
• Prevent platelet adhesion
■ Form a mesh that stabilizes a blood clot
15. Which process removes a clot after vessel repair?
• Erythropoiesis
■ Fibrinolysis
• Hemolysis
• Agglutination
16. A substance that opposes coagulation is best described as a(n):
• Hemolytic agent
• Erythropoietin
■ Anticoagulant
• Agglutinogen
17. In ABO typing, agglutination with anti-A serum indicates the RBCs possess:
• Rh antigen only
• B antigen
• No surface antigens
■ A antigen
18. A person with type O-positive blood has which RBC antigen pattern?
• B antigen only; Rh present
• A and B antigens; Rh absent
■ No A or B antigens; Rh antigen present
• A antigen only; Rh absent
19. Which blood type is the usual universal red-cell donor type when ABO/Rh compatibility is required?
• A positive
■ O negative
BIOL 252 • Original 250-question final review • Not an official Portage Learning exam Page 2
, • B negative
• AB positive
20. Which blood type is the usual universal red-cell recipient type?
• A negative
• O negative
• B positive
■ AB positive
21. A hematocrit primarily estimates the proportion of blood occupied by:
• Plasma proteins
• Platelets
• Leukocytes
■ Erythrocytes
22. A complete blood count commonly includes all EXCEPT:
• RBC count
■ Serum bile acid concentration
• WBC count
• Platelet count
23. A low platelet count would most directly increase the risk of:
• Hyperoxygenation
• Hyperglycemia
■ Bleeding
• Hypertension
24. A low neutrophil count most directly reduces the body's ability to:
■ Respond rapidly to many bacterial infections
• Transport oxygen
• Filter plasma
• Form bile
25. Which condition describes abnormally low numbers of circulating erythrocytes or hemoglobin?
• Thrombocytosis
■ Anemia
• Polycythemia
• Leukocytosis
Blood-vessel wall schematic
Tunica intima | tunica media | tunica externa
26. Which condition refers to an abnormally high RBC mass or concentration?
• Leukopenia
■ Polycythemia
• Thrombocytopenia
• Anemia
27. Which laboratory result most directly reflects the oxygen-carrying pigment in blood?
• Hematocrit only
■ Hemoglobin concentration
• Platelet count
• WBC differential
28. Why are gloves and appropriate barriers used when handling blood in the laboratory?
■ To reduce exposure to bloodborne pathogens
• To sterilize the specimen
• To increase platelet production
• To prevent oxygen from entering blood
Module 2 — Cardiovascular System: The Heart
29. Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta?
■ Left ventricle
BIOL 252 • Original 250-question final review • Not an official Portage Learning exam Page 3
Review 90+ Questions and Answers -Summary | LockDown Browser
| Portage Learning
250-Question Original Practice Review • Answer key embedded • Built from the current BIOL 252 course outcomes and lab objectives
Heart schematic
R atrium → R ventricle → lungs L atrium → L ventricle → aorta
Respiratory schematic
Air: nose → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → alveoli
Module 1 — Blood
1. Which plasma protein contributes most directly to colloid osmotic pressure?
• Immunoglobulin E
• Hemoglobin
• Fibrin
■ Albumin
2. Which leukocyte is typically the most abundant circulating white blood cell?
• Basophil
• Monocyte
■ Neutrophil
• Eosinophil
3. Which leukocyte is especially associated with parasitic infections and allergic responses?
■ Eosinophil
• Platelet
• Neutrophil
• Monocyte
4. Which leukocyte releases histamine and heparin during inflammatory responses?
• Lymphocyte
• Monocyte
■ Basophil
• Erythrocyte
5. Which leukocyte can leave the bloodstream and differentiate into a macrophage in tissues?
■ Monocyte
• Basophil
• Neutrophil
• Eosinophil
6. What is the major role of platelets in hemostasis?
• Destroying old erythrocytes
• Carrying oxygen
• Producing antibodies
■ Forming the initial platelet plug and supporting coagulation
7. The hormone erythropoietin most directly stimulates which process?
• Antibody secretion
• Fibrin breakdown
• Platelet destruction
■ Erythrocyte production
BIOL 252 • Original 250-question final review • Not an official Portage Learning exam Page 1
, 8. Which organ is the major source of erythropoietin in adults?
• Liver
■ Kidney
• Thymus
• Spleen
9. The heme portion of hemoglobin contains which mineral?
■ Iron
• Sodium
• Potassium
• Calcium
10. A patient with reduced hemoglobin would most directly have impaired:
• Blood clot formation
• Lymph flow
• Antibody specificity
■ Oxygen-carrying capacity
11. What is the first vascular response immediately after a small vessel is injured?
• Clot retraction
• RBC agglutination
■ Vascular spasm
• Fibrinolysis
12. What is the purpose of the platelet plug?
• Dissolve fibrin
• Carry oxygen to the wound
■ Temporarily seal the damaged vessel
• Activate erythropoietin
13. Thrombin converts which soluble plasma protein into insoluble strands?
• Albumin
• Hemoglobin
• Globulin
■ Fibrinogen
14. Fibrin primarily functions to:
• Digest bacteria
• Carry carbon dioxide
• Prevent platelet adhesion
■ Form a mesh that stabilizes a blood clot
15. Which process removes a clot after vessel repair?
• Erythropoiesis
■ Fibrinolysis
• Hemolysis
• Agglutination
16. A substance that opposes coagulation is best described as a(n):
• Hemolytic agent
• Erythropoietin
■ Anticoagulant
• Agglutinogen
17. In ABO typing, agglutination with anti-A serum indicates the RBCs possess:
• Rh antigen only
• B antigen
• No surface antigens
■ A antigen
18. A person with type O-positive blood has which RBC antigen pattern?
• B antigen only; Rh present
• A and B antigens; Rh absent
■ No A or B antigens; Rh antigen present
• A antigen only; Rh absent
19. Which blood type is the usual universal red-cell donor type when ABO/Rh compatibility is required?
• A positive
■ O negative
BIOL 252 • Original 250-question final review • Not an official Portage Learning exam Page 2
, • B negative
• AB positive
20. Which blood type is the usual universal red-cell recipient type?
• A negative
• O negative
• B positive
■ AB positive
21. A hematocrit primarily estimates the proportion of blood occupied by:
• Plasma proteins
• Platelets
• Leukocytes
■ Erythrocytes
22. A complete blood count commonly includes all EXCEPT:
• RBC count
■ Serum bile acid concentration
• WBC count
• Platelet count
23. A low platelet count would most directly increase the risk of:
• Hyperoxygenation
• Hyperglycemia
■ Bleeding
• Hypertension
24. A low neutrophil count most directly reduces the body's ability to:
■ Respond rapidly to many bacterial infections
• Transport oxygen
• Filter plasma
• Form bile
25. Which condition describes abnormally low numbers of circulating erythrocytes or hemoglobin?
• Thrombocytosis
■ Anemia
• Polycythemia
• Leukocytosis
Blood-vessel wall schematic
Tunica intima | tunica media | tunica externa
26. Which condition refers to an abnormally high RBC mass or concentration?
• Leukopenia
■ Polycythemia
• Thrombocytopenia
• Anemia
27. Which laboratory result most directly reflects the oxygen-carrying pigment in blood?
• Hematocrit only
■ Hemoglobin concentration
• Platelet count
• WBC differential
28. Why are gloves and appropriate barriers used when handling blood in the laboratory?
■ To reduce exposure to bloodborne pathogens
• To sterilize the specimen
• To increase platelet production
• To prevent oxygen from entering blood
Module 2 — Cardiovascular System: The Heart
29. Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta?
■ Left ventricle
BIOL 252 • Original 250-question final review • Not an official Portage Learning exam Page 3
