NUR 6001 Exam 1 Actual Exam V2 | NUR 6001 Advanced Health
Assessment (NUR6001 Exam 1) | William Paterson University
1. When conducting a comprehensive health history on a new patient, which component
provides the most subjective information regarding the patient’s current health status?
A. Review of Systems (ROS)
B. Physical Examination findings
C. Laboratory test results
D. Past Medical History (PMH)
Answer: A
Rationale: The Review of Systems (ROS) is a subjective component of the health history
where the patient reports symptoms they have experienced. In contrast, the physical exam
and labs provide objective data. The PMH provides historical context but the ROS
specifically addresses current symptomatic status through the patient’s own perspective.
2. An advanced practice nurse is assessing a patient with suspected bacterial pneumonia.
Which physical assessment finding most strongly supports this diagnosis?
A. Vesicular breath sounds throughout all lung fields
B. Hyperresonance during percussion of the thorax
C. Dullness to percussion over the affected lobe
D. Decreased tactile fremitus over the base of the lungs
Answer: C
Rationale: Dullness to percussion occurs when fluid or solid tissue replaces air-filled lung
space, such as in lobar pneumonia. Resonance is normal, hyperresonance suggests trapped
air (COPD or pneumothorax), and tactile fremitus typically increases over areas of
consolidation rather than decreasing.
3. A 55-year-old male presents with a new pigmented lesion on his back. Which ‘ABCDE’
criteria finding would be most concerning for malignant melanoma?
A. A diameter of 4 mm
B. Symmetry in the lesion’s shape
C. A border that is regular and well-defined
D. Evolution or change in size, shape, or color
Answer: D
,Rationale: Evolution (E) is often the most sensitive sign of melanoma in the ABCDE
criteria, indicating a change in the lesion over time. A diameter greater than 6mm (not
4mm), asymmetry, and irregular borders are also concerning features for malignancy.
4. During a cardiac assessment, the nurse practitioner notes a mid-systolic click. This finding is
classically associated with which condition?
A. Mitral valve prolapse
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Tricuspid stenosis
D. Ventricular septal defect
Answer: A
Rationale: A mid-systolic click is the hallmark clinical finding of mitral valve prolapse,
often followed by a late systolic murmur. It results from the sudden tensing of the chordae
tendineae as the mitral valve leaflets prolapse into the left atrium during systole.
5. When assessing the cranial nerves, the clinician asks the patient to puff out their cheeks
and show their teeth. Which cranial nerve is being evaluated?
A. Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
B. Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
C. Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)
D. Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
Answer: D
Rationale: Cranial Nerve VII (Facial nerve) controls the muscles of facial expression.
Testing for symmetry while puffing cheeks, smiling, and frowning assesses the motor
function of this nerve. CN V handles facial sensation and mastication, while CN XII handles
tongue movement.
6. Which assessment technique is the correct sequence when performing a comprehensive
abdominal examination?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Answer: D
, Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal exam is inspection followed by
auscultation. Percussion and palpation are performed last because they can stimulate
bowel activity and artificially alter the bowel sounds heard during auscultation.
7. A patient presents with ‘the worst headache of my life.’ This classic description is a red flag
for which underlying pathology?
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Classic migraine with aura
C. Tension-type headache
D. Temporal arteritis
Answer: A
Rationale: A ‘thunderclap’ headache or the ‘worst headache of one’s life’ is a classic
indicator of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. This requires emergent evaluation with imaging
to rule out a ruptured aneurysm. Migraines and tension headaches are usually recurrent
and follow different patterns.
8. During an eye examination, the nurse practitioner observes a consensual light reflex. This
means:
A. The pupil constricts when a light is shone directly into it.
B. The eyes converge when an object moves closer to the nose.
C. The pupil constricts when a light is shone into the opposite eye.
D. The lens changes shape to focus on a distant object.
Answer: C
Rationale: The consensual light reflex refers to the simultaneous constriction of the pupil
in the eye that is not being directly stimulated by light. This indicates that the sensory
pathways of one eye and the motor pathways of both eyes are functioning correctly.
9. Which heart sound is considered physiological in children and young adults but often
pathological in older adults, signaling heart failure?
A. S3
B. S2
C. S1
D. S4
Answer: A
Assessment (NUR6001 Exam 1) | William Paterson University
1. When conducting a comprehensive health history on a new patient, which component
provides the most subjective information regarding the patient’s current health status?
A. Review of Systems (ROS)
B. Physical Examination findings
C. Laboratory test results
D. Past Medical History (PMH)
Answer: A
Rationale: The Review of Systems (ROS) is a subjective component of the health history
where the patient reports symptoms they have experienced. In contrast, the physical exam
and labs provide objective data. The PMH provides historical context but the ROS
specifically addresses current symptomatic status through the patient’s own perspective.
2. An advanced practice nurse is assessing a patient with suspected bacterial pneumonia.
Which physical assessment finding most strongly supports this diagnosis?
A. Vesicular breath sounds throughout all lung fields
B. Hyperresonance during percussion of the thorax
C. Dullness to percussion over the affected lobe
D. Decreased tactile fremitus over the base of the lungs
Answer: C
Rationale: Dullness to percussion occurs when fluid or solid tissue replaces air-filled lung
space, such as in lobar pneumonia. Resonance is normal, hyperresonance suggests trapped
air (COPD or pneumothorax), and tactile fremitus typically increases over areas of
consolidation rather than decreasing.
3. A 55-year-old male presents with a new pigmented lesion on his back. Which ‘ABCDE’
criteria finding would be most concerning for malignant melanoma?
A. A diameter of 4 mm
B. Symmetry in the lesion’s shape
C. A border that is regular and well-defined
D. Evolution or change in size, shape, or color
Answer: D
,Rationale: Evolution (E) is often the most sensitive sign of melanoma in the ABCDE
criteria, indicating a change in the lesion over time. A diameter greater than 6mm (not
4mm), asymmetry, and irregular borders are also concerning features for malignancy.
4. During a cardiac assessment, the nurse practitioner notes a mid-systolic click. This finding is
classically associated with which condition?
A. Mitral valve prolapse
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Tricuspid stenosis
D. Ventricular septal defect
Answer: A
Rationale: A mid-systolic click is the hallmark clinical finding of mitral valve prolapse,
often followed by a late systolic murmur. It results from the sudden tensing of the chordae
tendineae as the mitral valve leaflets prolapse into the left atrium during systole.
5. When assessing the cranial nerves, the clinician asks the patient to puff out their cheeks
and show their teeth. Which cranial nerve is being evaluated?
A. Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
B. Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
C. Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)
D. Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
Answer: D
Rationale: Cranial Nerve VII (Facial nerve) controls the muscles of facial expression.
Testing for symmetry while puffing cheeks, smiling, and frowning assesses the motor
function of this nerve. CN V handles facial sensation and mastication, while CN XII handles
tongue movement.
6. Which assessment technique is the correct sequence when performing a comprehensive
abdominal examination?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Answer: D
, Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal exam is inspection followed by
auscultation. Percussion and palpation are performed last because they can stimulate
bowel activity and artificially alter the bowel sounds heard during auscultation.
7. A patient presents with ‘the worst headache of my life.’ This classic description is a red flag
for which underlying pathology?
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Classic migraine with aura
C. Tension-type headache
D. Temporal arteritis
Answer: A
Rationale: A ‘thunderclap’ headache or the ‘worst headache of one’s life’ is a classic
indicator of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. This requires emergent evaluation with imaging
to rule out a ruptured aneurysm. Migraines and tension headaches are usually recurrent
and follow different patterns.
8. During an eye examination, the nurse practitioner observes a consensual light reflex. This
means:
A. The pupil constricts when a light is shone directly into it.
B. The eyes converge when an object moves closer to the nose.
C. The pupil constricts when a light is shone into the opposite eye.
D. The lens changes shape to focus on a distant object.
Answer: C
Rationale: The consensual light reflex refers to the simultaneous constriction of the pupil
in the eye that is not being directly stimulated by light. This indicates that the sensory
pathways of one eye and the motor pathways of both eyes are functioning correctly.
9. Which heart sound is considered physiological in children and young adults but often
pathological in older adults, signaling heart failure?
A. S3
B. S2
C. S1
D. S4
Answer: A
