Newborn Proctored Exam Study Guide & Practice Questions |
ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing Exam Prep, Obstetric Nursing,
Antepartum & Prenatal Care, Pregnancy Complications, Labor
& Delivery, Fetal Monitoring, Intrapartum Nursing,
Postpartum Assessment, Newborn Assessment & Care,
Neonatal Nursing, Breastfeeding, Maternal Medications, High-
Risk Pregnancy, Complications of Pregnancy, Clinical
Judgment, Prioritization, NGN-Style Case Studies & Detailed
Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who is at 20 weeks of
gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify
as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive serum hCG
B. Fetal heart tones auscultated with Doppler
C. Amenorrhea
D. Ultrasound visualization of the fetus
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Amenorrhea
Rationale: Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, which are
subjective changes reported by the client that suggest pregnancy but can
also be caused by other conditions. Positive serum hCG, auscultation of
fetal heart tones, and ultrasound visualization of the fetus are all positive
(diagnostic) signs that confirm pregnancy.
Question 2: A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks of
gestation about nutrition during pregnancy. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. "I should increase my daily intake of folic acid to 400 mcg."
B. "I should consume at least 1,000 mg of calcium each day."
C. "I should limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day."
D. "I should increase my calorie intake by 600 calories during the first
trimester."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I should consume at least 1,000 mg of
calcium each day."
Rationale: Pregnant clients require approximately 1,000 mg of calcium daily
to support fetal skeletal development and maintain maternal bone health.
,Folic acid needs increase to 600 mcg during pregnancy, not 400 mcg. Fluid
intake should not be restricted to 1 liter daily. Calorie intake should increase
by only about 340 calories during the second trimester and 452 during the
third, not 600 during the first.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who is in the first stage of
labor. The client reports intense back pain with each contraction.
Which of the following positions should the nurse recommend to
relieve the discomfort?
A. Supine with legs elevated
B. Left lateral with pillows between the legs
C. Hands and knees
D. High Fowler's with legs extended
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Hands and knees
Rationale: The hands-and-knees position reduces pressure on the sacrum
and can relieve back labor pain, which is often caused by the fetus in an
occiput posterior position. Supine positioning can compress the vena cava
and worsen pain. Left lateral and high Fowler's do not specifically relieve
sacral pressure associated with back labor.
Question 4: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client
who is at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
C. 1-hour glucose tolerance test result of 155 mg/dL
D. Hematocrit 34%
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 1-hour glucose tolerance test result of 155
mg/dL
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose tolerance test result of 155 mg/dL is above the
expected reference range of less than 140 mg/dL, indicating possible
gestational diabetes and requiring further evaluation. Hemoglobin of 11.5
g/dL, platelet count of 150,000/mm³, and hematocrit of 34% are within
expected ranges for pregnancy.
,Question 5: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who
is postpartum and has a new prescription for methylergonovine.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Report any calf pain or tenderness immediately."
B. "Take this medication on an empty stomach."
C. "Expect your blood pressure to decrease."
D. "This medication is safe to take while breastfeeding."
CORRECT ANSWER: A. "Report any calf pain or tenderness
immediately."
Rationale: Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid used to prevent or treat
postpartum hemorrhage. It causes vasoconstriction and can increase the
risk of thromboembolism, so calf pain or tenderness must be reported
immediately. It should be taken with food to reduce GI upset, can cause
hypertension rather than hypotension, and is generally avoided during
breastfeeding due to potential effects on the infant.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after
delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to
the provider?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
B. Respiratory rate of 50/min
C. Heart rate of 100/min
D. Grunting with nasal flaring
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Grunting with nasal flaring
Rationale: Grunting and nasal flaring are signs of respiratory distress in a
newborn and require immediate reporting and intervention. Acrocyanosis is
a normal finding in the first hours after birth. A respiratory rate of 50/min
and heart rate of 100/min are within expected newborn ranges.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client who is at 32 weeks of
gestation about signs of preterm labor. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will call my provider if I have a gush of fluid from my vagina."
B. "I will call my provider if I have menstrual-like cramps."
C. "I will call my provider if I feel the baby move less than usual."
D. "I will wait until my contractions are 5 minutes apart before calling."
, CORRECT ANSWER: D. "I will wait until my contractions are 5
minutes apart before calling."
Rationale: Clients should report contractions occurring every 10 minutes or
less, or any regular contractions, to their provider immediately because
preterm labor requires prompt evaluation. A gush of fluid, menstrual-like
cramps, and decreased fetal movement are all signs that require immediate
reporting. Waiting until contractions are 5 minutes apart delays necessary
intervention.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin
for induction of labor. Which of the following findings should the
nurse identify as a complication of oxytocin administration?
A. Contractions lasting 45 seconds
B. Contractions occurring every 3 minutes
C. Uterine resting tone of 20 mm Hg
D. Contractions lasting 90 seconds with no resting interval
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Contractions lasting 90 seconds with no
resting interval
Rationale: Contractions lasting longer than 60 to 90 seconds with no resting
interval between them indicate uterine hyperstimulation, a serious
complication of oxytocin that can lead to fetal hypoxia and uterine rupture.
Contractions lasting 45 seconds, occurring every 3 minutes, and a resting
tone of 20 mm Hg are within expected parameters during labor.
Question 9: A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours
postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider?
A. Lochia rubra with small clots
B. Fundus firm at the level of the umbilicus
C. Saturated perineal pad within 15 minutes
D. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Saturated perineal pad within 15 minutes
Rationale: Saturating a perineal pad within 15 minutes indicates excessive
postpartum bleeding, which may signal hemorrhage and requires
immediate reporting. Lochia rubra with small clots, a firm fundus at the