ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam (32
Latest Versions, 2023) / Maternal Newborn
ATI Proctored Exam / ATI Proctored
Maternal Newborn Exam |Real + Practice
Exam, Q and A
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment (Q1–Q20)
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks' gestation. Which finding should the nurse report
to the provider?
A. Fetal heart rate 150/min
B. Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
D. Urine protein negative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hemoglobin below 11 g/dL in the first trimester indicates anemia and requires
provider notification. FHR of 150/min, BP 118/76, and negative urine protein are expected
findings.
2. A client at 28 weeks' gestation reports frequent heartburn. Which instruction should the
nurse provide?
A. "Lie down immediately after eating."
B. "Eat three large meals per day."
C. "Avoid spicy and fatty foods."
D. "Drink fluids with meals."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spicy and fatty foods worsen heartburn. Clients should eat small frequent meals,
remain upright after eating, and drink fluids between meals.
,3. Which of the following are expected physiological changes during pregnancy? (SATA)
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
C. Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland
D. Decreased tidal volume
E. Increased blood volume
Correct Answers: A, C, E
Rationale: Cardiac output, thyroid hyperplasia, and blood volume all increase. GFR
increases (not decreases), and tidal volume increases (not decreases).
4. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last menstrual
period began March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is the EDD?
A. December 3
B. December 17
C. December 10
D. December 24
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months, add 7 days, add 1 year. March 10 → December
17.
5. A client at 10 weeks' gestation asks when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The
nurse should respond:
A. "Around 12 weeks."
B. "Between 16 and 20 weeks."
C. "At 24 weeks."
D. "Not until the third trimester."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening is typically felt between 16 and 20 weeks in primigravidas, sometimes
earlier in multigravidas.
6. Which laboratory test is used to confirm pregnancy by detecting hCG?
A. Complete blood count
B. Serum beta-hCG
,C. Amniocentesis
D. Chorionic villus sampling
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Serum beta-hCG is the most reliable hormonal test for confirming pregnancy.
7. A nurse is teaching a prenatal client about folic acid. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I should take 400 mcg daily before and during early pregnancy."
B. "Folic acid prevents gestational diabetes."
C. "I only need it in the third trimester."
D. "It replaces iron supplements."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 400 mcg daily is recommended to prevent neural tube defects, especially before
conception and in early pregnancy.
8. A client at 36 weeks' gestation has a fundal height of 32 cm. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Document as normal
B. Notify the provider
C. Re-measure in 2 weeks
D. Encourage hydration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fundal height should approximate gestational age ±2 cm. A 4-cm discrepancy
may indicate IUGR or other concerns and should be reported.
9. Which vaccine is safe to administer during pregnancy?
A. MMR
B. Varicella
C. Tdap
D. Live influenza (LAIV)
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy (27–36 weeks). MMR, varicella,
and LAIV are contraindicated.
10. A client reports nausea and vomiting in the first trimester. Which intervention should the
nurse suggest first?
A. Eat dry crackers before rising
B. Take antiemetics daily
C. Skip breakfast
D. Drink large amounts of water with meals
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before rising helps reduce morning nausea. Small frequent
meals and fluids between meals are also helpful.
11. Which of the following are risk factors for gestational diabetes? (SATA)
A. Obesity
B. Maternal age over 25
C. Previous macrosomic infant
D. Family history of diabetes
E. Chronic hypertension
Correct Answers: A, C, D, E
Rationale: Obesity, prior macrosomic infant, family history of diabetes, and chronic
hypertension are risk factors. Age over 25 alone is not a strong risk factor.
12. A nurse is reviewing a client's prenatal history. GTPAL: G4 T2 P1 A1 L3. What does the "A1"
represent?
A. One abortion
B. One living child
C. One preterm birth
D. One term birth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In GTPAL, A = abortions (spontaneous or elective).
Latest Versions, 2023) / Maternal Newborn
ATI Proctored Exam / ATI Proctored
Maternal Newborn Exam |Real + Practice
Exam, Q and A
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Prenatal Assessment (Q1–Q20)
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks' gestation. Which finding should the nurse report
to the provider?
A. Fetal heart rate 150/min
B. Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
C. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
D. Urine protein negative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hemoglobin below 11 g/dL in the first trimester indicates anemia and requires
provider notification. FHR of 150/min, BP 118/76, and negative urine protein are expected
findings.
2. A client at 28 weeks' gestation reports frequent heartburn. Which instruction should the
nurse provide?
A. "Lie down immediately after eating."
B. "Eat three large meals per day."
C. "Avoid spicy and fatty foods."
D. "Drink fluids with meals."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spicy and fatty foods worsen heartburn. Clients should eat small frequent meals,
remain upright after eating, and drink fluids between meals.
,3. Which of the following are expected physiological changes during pregnancy? (SATA)
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
C. Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland
D. Decreased tidal volume
E. Increased blood volume
Correct Answers: A, C, E
Rationale: Cardiac output, thyroid hyperplasia, and blood volume all increase. GFR
increases (not decreases), and tidal volume increases (not decreases).
4. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last menstrual
period began March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is the EDD?
A. December 3
B. December 17
C. December 10
D. December 24
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months, add 7 days, add 1 year. March 10 → December
17.
5. A client at 10 weeks' gestation asks when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The
nurse should respond:
A. "Around 12 weeks."
B. "Between 16 and 20 weeks."
C. "At 24 weeks."
D. "Not until the third trimester."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening is typically felt between 16 and 20 weeks in primigravidas, sometimes
earlier in multigravidas.
6. Which laboratory test is used to confirm pregnancy by detecting hCG?
A. Complete blood count
B. Serum beta-hCG
,C. Amniocentesis
D. Chorionic villus sampling
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Serum beta-hCG is the most reliable hormonal test for confirming pregnancy.
7. A nurse is teaching a prenatal client about folic acid. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I should take 400 mcg daily before and during early pregnancy."
B. "Folic acid prevents gestational diabetes."
C. "I only need it in the third trimester."
D. "It replaces iron supplements."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 400 mcg daily is recommended to prevent neural tube defects, especially before
conception and in early pregnancy.
8. A client at 36 weeks' gestation has a fundal height of 32 cm. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Document as normal
B. Notify the provider
C. Re-measure in 2 weeks
D. Encourage hydration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fundal height should approximate gestational age ±2 cm. A 4-cm discrepancy
may indicate IUGR or other concerns and should be reported.
9. Which vaccine is safe to administer during pregnancy?
A. MMR
B. Varicella
C. Tdap
D. Live influenza (LAIV)
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy (27–36 weeks). MMR, varicella,
and LAIV are contraindicated.
10. A client reports nausea and vomiting in the first trimester. Which intervention should the
nurse suggest first?
A. Eat dry crackers before rising
B. Take antiemetics daily
C. Skip breakfast
D. Drink large amounts of water with meals
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before rising helps reduce morning nausea. Small frequent
meals and fluids between meals are also helpful.
11. Which of the following are risk factors for gestational diabetes? (SATA)
A. Obesity
B. Maternal age over 25
C. Previous macrosomic infant
D. Family history of diabetes
E. Chronic hypertension
Correct Answers: A, C, D, E
Rationale: Obesity, prior macrosomic infant, family history of diabetes, and chronic
hypertension are risk factors. Age over 25 alone is not a strong risk factor.
12. A nurse is reviewing a client's prenatal history. GTPAL: G4 T2 P1 A1 L3. What does the "A1"
represent?
A. One abortion
B. One living child
C. One preterm birth
D. One term birth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In GTPAL, A = abortions (spontaneous or elective).
