ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING EXAM 2026/2027 –
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client who is 10 weeks pregnant asks the nurse which finding is considered a common
physiologic change during early pregnancy. Which response is appropriate?
A. Persistent severe hypertension
B. Increased urinary frequency
C. Decreased breast tenderness
D. Complete absence of nausea
Rationale: Increased urinary frequency is common during early pregnancy because of hormonal
changes and increased blood flow to the kidneys. Severe hypertension is abnormal, and breast
tenderness and nausea may occur rather than disappear.
2. A nurse is reviewing the estimated date of delivery with a client whose last menstrual
period began on July 10. Using Nägele’s rule, which date should the nurse identify?
A. March 17
B. April 3
C. April 17
D. May 10
Rationale: Nägele’s rule adds 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtracts 3
months, and adds 1 year. July 10 results in an estimated due date of April 17.
3. During a prenatal visit, the nurse measures the client's fundal height. At approximately 20
weeks of gestation, where should the fundus normally be located?
A. At the symphysis pubis
B. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
C. At the xiphoid process
D. At the level of the umbilicus
Rationale: Around 20 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus is normally at the level of the
umbilicus. Fundal height then generally corresponds closely to gestational age in centimeters
until later pregnancy.
4. A pregnant client reports that she has noticed increased vaginal discharge without itching,
burning, or foul odor. Which finding is most consistent with a normal pregnancy change?
A. Thin, milky-white leukorrhea
B. Thick green discharge
,C. Foul-smelling yellow discharge
D. Bloody discharge with abdominal pain
Rationale: Increased thin, milky-white vaginal discharge, called leukorrhea, is common during
pregnancy. Foul odor, abnormal color, itching, or bleeding can indicate infection or another
complication.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about prenatal nutrition. Which nutrient is particularly
important for reducing the risk of neural tube defects?
A. Calcium
B. Vitamin D
C. Iron
D. Folic acid
Rationale: Adequate folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy helps reduce the
risk of fetal neural tube defects. Iron and calcium are also important during pregnancy but serve
different primary functions.
6. A client at 28 weeks of gestation asks why she should receive routine screening for
gestational diabetes. Which explanation is most appropriate?
A. It determines the fetal blood type.
B. It identifies abnormal glucose regulation that can affect maternal and fetal health.
C. It confirms the presence of congenital abnormalities.
D. It determines whether the client will require a cesarean birth.
Rationale: Gestational diabetes can increase risks such as excessive fetal growth, birth
complications, and neonatal hypoglycemia. Screening identifies clients who need further
evaluation and management.
7. A pregnant client reports a sudden gush of clear fluid from the vagina. Which nursing
action is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate.
B. Obtain a urine specimen.
C. Assess fetal heart rate.
D. Encourage oral fluids.
Rationale: A sudden gush of fluid may indicate rupture of membranes. After suspected rupture,
fetal heart rate assessment is a priority because cord compression or prolapse can compromise
fetal oxygenation.
8. A client at 34 weeks of gestation reports vaginal bleeding without pain. Which
complication should the nurse suspect?
, A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preterm labor
C. Uterine rupture
D. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding during
the second half of pregnancy. Abruptio placentae more commonly causes painful bleeding with
uterine tenderness or rigidity.
9. A client at 35 weeks of gestation has hypertension, severe headache, visual disturbances,
and right upper quadrant pain. Which complication is most concerning?
A. Severe preeclampsia with possible hepatic involvement
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Normal third-trimester discomfort
D. Physiologic anemia
Rationale: Severe headache, visual changes, hypertension, and right upper quadrant or
epigastric pain are warning signs of severe hypertensive disease of pregnancy and possible liver
involvement.
10. A nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding requires immediate attention?
A. Urinary output of 45 mL/hr
B. Warm flushed skin
C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes
Rationale: Loss of deep-tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity. Respiratory
depression, decreased urine output, and cardiac abnormalities can follow as toxicity worsens,
making prompt intervention essential.
11. A pregnant client asks why Rh immune globulin may be prescribed during pregnancy.
Which explanation is correct?
A. It prevents gestational diabetes.
B. It treats maternal anemia.
C. It helps prevent Rh sensitization in an Rh-negative client.
D. It increases fetal red blood cell production.
Rationale: Rh immune globulin prevents an Rh-negative client from developing antibodies
against Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. It is used prophylactically rather than to treat anemia
or diabetes.
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A client who is 10 weeks pregnant asks the nurse which finding is considered a common
physiologic change during early pregnancy. Which response is appropriate?
A. Persistent severe hypertension
B. Increased urinary frequency
C. Decreased breast tenderness
D. Complete absence of nausea
Rationale: Increased urinary frequency is common during early pregnancy because of hormonal
changes and increased blood flow to the kidneys. Severe hypertension is abnormal, and breast
tenderness and nausea may occur rather than disappear.
2. A nurse is reviewing the estimated date of delivery with a client whose last menstrual
period began on July 10. Using Nägele’s rule, which date should the nurse identify?
A. March 17
B. April 3
C. April 17
D. May 10
Rationale: Nägele’s rule adds 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtracts 3
months, and adds 1 year. July 10 results in an estimated due date of April 17.
3. During a prenatal visit, the nurse measures the client's fundal height. At approximately 20
weeks of gestation, where should the fundus normally be located?
A. At the symphysis pubis
B. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
C. At the xiphoid process
D. At the level of the umbilicus
Rationale: Around 20 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus is normally at the level of the
umbilicus. Fundal height then generally corresponds closely to gestational age in centimeters
until later pregnancy.
4. A pregnant client reports that she has noticed increased vaginal discharge without itching,
burning, or foul odor. Which finding is most consistent with a normal pregnancy change?
A. Thin, milky-white leukorrhea
B. Thick green discharge
,C. Foul-smelling yellow discharge
D. Bloody discharge with abdominal pain
Rationale: Increased thin, milky-white vaginal discharge, called leukorrhea, is common during
pregnancy. Foul odor, abnormal color, itching, or bleeding can indicate infection or another
complication.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about prenatal nutrition. Which nutrient is particularly
important for reducing the risk of neural tube defects?
A. Calcium
B. Vitamin D
C. Iron
D. Folic acid
Rationale: Adequate folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy helps reduce the
risk of fetal neural tube defects. Iron and calcium are also important during pregnancy but serve
different primary functions.
6. A client at 28 weeks of gestation asks why she should receive routine screening for
gestational diabetes. Which explanation is most appropriate?
A. It determines the fetal blood type.
B. It identifies abnormal glucose regulation that can affect maternal and fetal health.
C. It confirms the presence of congenital abnormalities.
D. It determines whether the client will require a cesarean birth.
Rationale: Gestational diabetes can increase risks such as excessive fetal growth, birth
complications, and neonatal hypoglycemia. Screening identifies clients who need further
evaluation and management.
7. A pregnant client reports a sudden gush of clear fluid from the vagina. Which nursing
action is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate.
B. Obtain a urine specimen.
C. Assess fetal heart rate.
D. Encourage oral fluids.
Rationale: A sudden gush of fluid may indicate rupture of membranes. After suspected rupture,
fetal heart rate assessment is a priority because cord compression or prolapse can compromise
fetal oxygenation.
8. A client at 34 weeks of gestation reports vaginal bleeding without pain. Which
complication should the nurse suspect?
, A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preterm labor
C. Uterine rupture
D. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding during
the second half of pregnancy. Abruptio placentae more commonly causes painful bleeding with
uterine tenderness or rigidity.
9. A client at 35 weeks of gestation has hypertension, severe headache, visual disturbances,
and right upper quadrant pain. Which complication is most concerning?
A. Severe preeclampsia with possible hepatic involvement
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Normal third-trimester discomfort
D. Physiologic anemia
Rationale: Severe headache, visual changes, hypertension, and right upper quadrant or
epigastric pain are warning signs of severe hypertensive disease of pregnancy and possible liver
involvement.
10. A nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding requires immediate attention?
A. Urinary output of 45 mL/hr
B. Warm flushed skin
C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes
Rationale: Loss of deep-tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity. Respiratory
depression, decreased urine output, and cardiac abnormalities can follow as toxicity worsens,
making prompt intervention essential.
11. A pregnant client asks why Rh immune globulin may be prescribed during pregnancy.
Which explanation is correct?
A. It prevents gestational diabetes.
B. It treats maternal anemia.
C. It helps prevent Rh sensitization in an Rh-negative client.
D. It increases fetal red blood cell production.
Rationale: Rh immune globulin prevents an Rh-negative client from developing antibodies
against Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. It is used prophylactically rather than to treat anemia
or diabetes.
