Chamberlain College of Nursing NR283 Test Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final Exam, 300 QA) Pathophysiology 100 % Verified Answers, Already Graded A

Chamberlain College of Nursing NR283 Test Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final Exam, 300 QA) Pathophysiology 100 % Verified Answers, Already Graded A NR 283 / NR283 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY Enhanced Exam 1–3 & Final Study Guide Original high-yield Q&A; • detailed rationales • exam traps • memory aids • clinical reasoning Source note: This is an independently written study resource based on the public metadata and topic preview of the referenced Stuvia listing. It does not reproduce or reconstruct paid/locked text and is not an official Chamberlain University document. NR 283 Pathophysiology — Enhanced Study Guide Page 2 How to Study Use active recall: answer each question before reading the answer. Then explain the rationale in your own words. Finally, identify the mechanism, not just the disease name. Pathophysiology exams often reward recognition of cause → mechanism → consequence. High-yield chain: stimulus/injury → cellular or physiologic response → compensation → clinical manifestation → complication. NR 283 Pathophysiology — Enhanced Study Guide Page 3 EXAM 1 – Cellular Adaptation, Injury, Genetics, Fluids & Immunity 1. A patient develops smaller skeletal muscles after prolonged immobilization. Which adaptation is this? A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Atrophy D. Metaplasia Answer: C Rationale: Atrophy is a decrease in cell size and commonly follows disuse, denervation, reduced workload, or diminished blood supply. Exam pearl / trap: Trap: Atrophy is cell shrinkage; hyperplasia is an increase in cell number. 2. Which cellular adaptation involves an increase in cell size? A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Dysplasia D. Metaplasia Answer: A Rationale: Hypertrophy increases the size of individual cells. It is important in tissues such as cardiac muscle, where mature cells have limited ability to divide. Exam pearl / trap: Memory aid: HYPER-TROPHY = bigger cells; HYPER-PLASIA = more cells. 3. A chronic smoker develops replacement of ciliated columnar respiratory epithelium by stratified squamous epithelium. This is: A. Dysplasia B. Metaplasia C. Anaplasia D. Necrosis Answer: B Rationale: Metaplasia is a potentially reversible change in which one mature cell type is replaced by another better able to tolerate chronic stress. Exam pearl / trap: Exam pearl: Metaplasia is adaptation, not automatically cancer. 4. Which finding most strongly suggests dysplasia? A. Uniform mature cells B. Disordered growth with variation in cell size and shape C. Reduced cell size only D. Programmed cell death Answer: B Rationale: Dysplasia involves abnormal, disordered cellular growth and maturation. It may be associated with premalignant change. Exam pearl / trap: Trap: Dysplasia is not the same as benign hypertrophy. 5. Which type of necrosis is classically associated with myocardial infarction? A. Liquefactive B. Caseous C. Coagulative D. Fat Answer: C Rationale: Coagulative necrosis is typical of ischemic injury in solid organs such as the heart. Tissue architecture is initially preserved even though cells are dead. Exam pearl / trap: Memory aid: Heart attack → coagulative. 6. Which process is programmed cell death with minimal inflammation? A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis NR 283 Pathophysiology — Enhanced Study Guide Page 4 C. Gangrene D. Ischemia Answer: B Rationale: Apoptosis is regulated cell death that removes damaged or unnecessary cells without the marked inflammatory response typical of necrosis. Exam pearl / trap: Exam trap: Apoptosis is controlled; necrosis is generally uncontrolled injury-related cell death. 7. What is a major consequence of cellular hypoxia? A. Increased ATP production B. Impaired oxidative phosphorylation and ATP depletion C. Immediate DNA replication D. Increased membrane stability Answer: B Rationale: Hypoxia reduces oxygen available for mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation, causing ATP depletion and downstream dysfunction such as sodium-potassium pump failure. Exam pearl / trap: Sequence: Hypoxia → ATP depletion → pump failure → cellular swelling → membrane injury. 8. Why does failure of the sodium-potassium pump cause cellular swelling? A. Sodium leaves the cell rapidly B. Sodium accumulates intracellularly and water follows C. Potassium accumulates outside only D. Protein synthesis stops instantly Answer: B Rationale: ATP-dependent pump failure causes intracellular sodium accumulation; water follows osmotically, producing cellular swelling. Exam pearl / trap: Exam pearl: Cell swelling is an early reversible injury pattern. 9. Which is an example of physiological hyperplasia? A. Endometrial proliferation during the menstrual cycle B. Brain liquefactive necrosis C. Cardiac myocyte enlargement D. Scar formation Answer: A Rationale: Physiologic hyperplasia is regulated cell proliferation in response to normal hormonal or compensatory signals. Exam pearl / trap: Trap: Hyperplasia means more cells, not larger cells. 10. A patient overdoses on acetaminophen. Which mechanism contributes to hepatic injury? A. Excess insulin B. Toxic metabolite formation after glutathione depletion C. Increased hemoglobin synthesis D. Increased surfactant production Answer: B Rationale: Acetaminophen is metabolized partly to the toxic metabolite NAPQI. When glutathione defenses are overwhelmed or depleted, hepatocellular injury can occur. Exam pearl / trap: Exam pearl: Toxic exposure can injure cells through reactive metabolites. NR 283 Pathophysiology — Enhanced Study Guide Page 5 EXAM 1 – Genetics, Fluid/Electrolyte Balance & Inflammation 11. What is the difference between genotype and phenotype? A. Genotype is observable; phenotype is DNA only B. Genotype is genetic makeup; phenotype is the observable expression of traits C. They are identical terms D. Phenotype refers only to chromosomes Answer: B Rationale: Genotype describes inherited genetic information; phenotype is the resulting observable characteristics influenced by genes and environment. Exam pearl / trap: Memory aid: Geno = genes; pheno = physical/expressed features. 12. A patient has low serum sodium. Which term describes this finding? A. Hypernatremia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia Answer: B Rationale: Hyponatremia is a serum sodium concentration below the expected range. Interpretation requires attention to volume status and underlying cause. Exam pearl / trap: Exam trap: Sodium disorders concern concentration and water balance, not simply dietary sodium intake. 13. Which electrolyte is especially important for cardiac electrical activity? A. Potassium B. Iron C. Albumin D. Bilirubin Answer: A Rationale: Potassium is central to membrane potential and cardiac conduction. Significant potassium abnormalities can produce dangerous dysrhythmias. Exam pearl / trap: Exam pearl: Both hypo- and hyperkalemia can be clinically serious. 14. Which fluid compartment contains the largest proportion of total body water? A. Intracellular fluid B. Intravascular plasma C. Interstitial fluid D. Transcellular fluid Answer: A Rationale: Most total body water is intracellular. Extracellular fluid includes plasma and interstitial compartments. Exam pearl / trap: Memory aid: Most water is inside cells. 15. Which finding is most consistent with edema? A. Excess fluid in the interstitial space B. Loss of all intracellular fluid C. Reduced plasma volume only D. Increased red-cell mass Answer: A Rationale: Edema is excess fluid accumulation in the interstitial space. Causes include increased hydrostatic pressure, reduced oncotic pressure, lymphatic obstruction, and sodium/water retention. Exam pearl / trap: Exam trap: Edema is a physical finding with multiple possible mechanisms. 16. Which inflammatory response is most associated with histamine release? A. Vasoconstriction only B. Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability C. Reduced blood flow and decreased permeability D. Immediate fibrosis NR 283 Pathophysiology — Enhanced Study Guide Page 6 Answer: B Rationale: Histamine contributes to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, promoting redness, warmth, and tissue swelling. Exam pearl / trap: Memory aid: Histamine helps open vessels and make them leakier. 17. What is the primary purpose of inflammation? A. Always destroy healthy tissue B. Remove injurious stimuli and begin tissue repair C. Prevent leukocyte movement D. Eliminate all immune responses Answer: B Rationale: Inflammation is a protective response intended to eliminate or contain injury and initiate repair, although excessive or prolonged inflammation can cause tissue damage. Exam pearl / trap: Exam pearl: Inflammation is protective in purpose but can become harmful. 18. Which leukocyte is commonly associated with acute bacterial inflammation? A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Plasma cell Answer: A Rationale: Neutrophils are prominent early responders in many acute bacterial infections and can phagocytose pathogens. Exam pearl / trap: Trap: Chronic inflammation has a different cellular profile, often including macrophages and lymphocytes.