EXAM COMPREHENSIVE 300-QUESTION PRACTICE
EXAMINATION |BASED ON ABC TEST CONTENT
OUTLINES & PRACTICE ANALYSIS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS & DETAILED RATIONALES
Question 1
The distal end of the fibula is called the:
A) Medial malleolus
B) Lateral malleolus
C) Lateral epicondyle
D) Tibial tuberosity
Correct Answer: B) Lateral malleolus
Rationale: The lateral malleolus is the bony prominence at the distal end of the fibula,
forming the lateral aspect of the ankle joint. The medial malleolus is the distal end of the
tibia. The lateral epicondyle is on the femur, and the tibial tuberosity is on the proximal
tibia.
Question 2
Which muscle is the primary flexor of the elbow?
A) Biceps brachii
B) Brachioradialis
C) Anconeus
D) Brachialis
Correct Answer: D) Brachialis
Rationale: The brachialis is the primary flexor of the elbow. The biceps brachii also flexes
the elbow but is a secondary flexor.
,Question 3
A Trendelenburg gait occurs with weakness of which muscle?
A) Gluteus medius
B) Gluteus maximus
C) Adductor magnus
D) Rectus femoris
Correct Answer: A) Gluteus medius
Rationale: The gluteus medius prevents contralateral pelvic drop during single-leg stance.
Weakness results in a Trendelenburg gait pattern.
Question 4
The stance phase of gait constitutes approximately what percentage of the gait cycle at
normal walking speed?
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
Correct Answer: C) 60%
Rationale: The stance phase comprises approximately 60% of the gait cycle, while the
swing phase makes up the remaining 40% at normal walking speeds.
Question 5
At initial contact, the body weight line is:
A) Anterior to the ankle and posterior to the knee
B) Posterior to the ankle and posterior to the knee
C) Posterior to the ankle and anterior to the knee
D) Anterior to the ankle and anterior to the knee
Correct Answer: A) Anterior to the ankle and posterior to the knee
,Rationale: At initial contact, the body weight line passes anterior to the ankle joint
(creating a plantarflexion moment) and posterior to the knee joint (creating a knee flexion
moment).
Question 6
The functions of the tibialis posterior muscle are:
A) Plantar flexion and inversion
B) Plantar flexion and eversion
C) Dorsiflexion and inversion
D) Dorsiflexion and eversion
Correct Answer: A) Plantar flexion and inversion
Rationale: The tibialis posterior muscle performs plantar flexion and inversion of the foot.
Question 7
The distal aspect of the tibia articulates with the:
A) Calcaneus and fibula
B) Calcaneus and talus
C) Talus and fibula
D) Talus and navicular
Correct Answer: C) Talus and fibula
Rationale: The distal tibia articulates with the talus (forming the tibiotalar joint) and the
fibula (forming the tibiofibular syndesmosis).
Question 8
Which muscle is primarily responsible for knee extension during the swing phase of
gait?
A) Rectus femoris
B) Vastus medialis
, C) Biceps femoris
D) Gastrocnemius
Correct Answer: A) Rectus femoris
Rationale: The rectus femoris is a biarticular muscle that assists in both hip flexion and
knee extension during the swing phase, facilitating foot clearance.
Question 9
A patient presents with a foot slap at initial contact. This gait deviation is most likely due
to weakness of which muscle?
A) Gastrocnemius
B) Tibialis anterior
C) Peroneus longus
D) Soleus
Correct Answer: B) Tibialis anterior
Rationale: Foot slap results from inadequate eccentric control of plantarflexion after heel
strike, indicating tibialis anterior weakness.
Question 10
Which amputation level is MOST likely to develop an equinus contracture?
A) Transmetatarsal
B) Chopard
C) Symes
D) Transtibial
Correct Answer: B) Chopard
Rationale: A Chopard amputation removes the midfoot and forefoot while preserving the
talus and calcaneus. It is most likely to develop equinus contracture due to unopposed pull
of the gastrocnemius-soleus complex.