1
CVS PHARMACY TECHNICIAN LICENSE EXAM
STUDY GUIDE: STUDY GUIDE | LATEST
UPDATE 2026/2027 | PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT ANSWERS |
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
This comprehensive practice examination is designed for candidates preparing for
the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) exam and state licensure
requirements, including CVS Pharmacy Technician training pathways. It reflects
the 2026 PTCB content outline effective January 6, 2026, covering four knowledge
domains: Medications (35%), Patient Safety and Quality Assurance (23.75%),
Order Entry and Processing (22.25%), and Federal Requirements (18.75%). The
material includes pharmacy calculations, top 200 drug knowledge, sterile and non-
sterile compounding, controlled substance regulations, and prescription
processing. Each item includes verified solutions and detailed rationales to help
candidates master the competencies required for certification success. This guide
simulates certification-level difficulty and supports focused professional exam
preparation.
Table of Contents
I. Medications – Drug Classification and Therapeutic Uses
II. Medications – Dosage Forms and Routes of Administration
III. Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
IV. Order Entry and Processing
V. Federal Requirements – Controlled Substances and DEA
VI. Federal Requirements – HIPAA and FDA Regulations
VII. Pharmacy Calculations – Dosages and Conversions
VIII. Compounding – Sterile and Non-Sterile
IX. Pharmacy Operations and Inventory Management
X. Professional Ethics and Communication
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Question 1: A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for amoxicillin 500 mg
PO TID for 10 days. What is the total quantity to dispense?
A) 20 capsules
B) 30 capsules
C) 40 capsules
D) 50 capsules
Correct Answer: B
TID means three times daily. For 10 days, the calculation is 3 doses/day × 10 days
= 30 capsules. Options A, C, and D result from incorrect multiplication or
misinterpretation of the frequency abbreviation.
Question 2: Which of the following medications belongs to the proton pump
inhibitor (PPI) class?
A) Ranitidine
B) Omeprazole
C) Famotidine
D) Sucralfate
Correct Answer: B
Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor that irreversibly blocks the
hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme system in gastric parietal cells. Ranitidine
and famotidine are H2 receptor antagonists, and sucralfate is a mucosal
protectant.
Question 3: What is the generic name for the brand medication Lipitor?
A) Simvastatin
B) Atorvastatin
C) Rosuvastatin
D) Pravastatin
Correct Answer: B
Atorvastatin is the generic name for Lipitor, a statin used to treat hyperlipidemia.
Simvastatin is Zocor, rosuvastatin is Crestor, and pravastatin is Pravachol.
Question 4: A patient presents a prescription for oxycodone/acetaminophen 5/325
mg. What is the DEA schedule for this medication?
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A) Schedule II
B) Schedule III
C) Schedule IV
D) Schedule V
Correct Answer: A
Oxycodone is a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse
and dependence. Acetaminophen is not controlled. Combination products
containing oxycodone remain Schedule II. Schedule III examples include codeine
combinations, and Schedule IV includes benzodiazepines.
Question 5: Which auxiliary label should be placed on a prescription for
metronidazole?
A) "May cause drowsiness"
B) "Do not drink alcoholic beverages"
C) "Take with food"
D) "Avoid sunlight"
Correct Answer: B
Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol,
producing severe nausea, vomiting, and flushing. The auxiliary label "Do not drink
alcoholic beverages" is required. Drowsiness labels apply to sedatives, and
photosensitivity warnings apply to medications like tetracyclines.
Question 6: A prescription is written for "Lisinopril 10 mg PO QD." What does
QD mean?
A) Every other day
B) Four times daily
C) Once daily
D) Twice daily
Correct Answer: C
QD is derived from the Latin "quaque die," meaning once daily. QOD means every
other day, QID means four times daily, and BID means twice daily. Error-prone
abbreviations like QD are discouraged by ISMP in favor of "daily."
Question 7: Which of the following is a common side effect of metformin?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Gastrointestinal upset
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C) Weight gain
D) Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects including diarrhea,
nausea, and abdominal discomfort. Unlike sulfonylureas, metformin does not
typically cause hypoglycemia when used alone. Weight gain is not a typical side
effect; metformin is weight-neutral or may promote slight weight loss.
Question 8: What is the maximum quantity of pseudoephedrine that can be
purchased in a single day under federal law?
A) 3.6 grams
B) 7.5 grams
C) 9 grams
D) 2.4 grams
Correct Answer: A
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act limits single-day purchases of
pseudoephedrine to 3.6 grams. The 30-day limit is 9 grams. Options B, C, and D
represent incorrect limits or the 30-day maximum.
Question 9: A pharmacy technician is preparing to compound a non-sterile oral
suspension. Which equipment is essential for accurate measurement of the liquid
vehicle?
A) Graduated cylinder
B) Beaker
C) Mortar and pestle
D) Spatula
Correct Answer: A
A graduated cylinder is essential for accurately measuring liquid volumes in
compounding. Beakers provide approximate measurements, mortars and pestles
are for grinding solids, and spatulas are for mixing and transferring powders.
Question 10: Which of the following medications requires refrigeration?
A) Amoxicillin oral suspension before reconstitution
B) Insulin
C) Metformin tablets
D) Lisinopril tablets
CVS PHARMACY TECHNICIAN LICENSE EXAM
STUDY GUIDE: STUDY GUIDE | LATEST
UPDATE 2026/2027 | PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | 100% CORRECT ANSWERS |
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
This comprehensive practice examination is designed for candidates preparing for
the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) exam and state licensure
requirements, including CVS Pharmacy Technician training pathways. It reflects
the 2026 PTCB content outline effective January 6, 2026, covering four knowledge
domains: Medications (35%), Patient Safety and Quality Assurance (23.75%),
Order Entry and Processing (22.25%), and Federal Requirements (18.75%). The
material includes pharmacy calculations, top 200 drug knowledge, sterile and non-
sterile compounding, controlled substance regulations, and prescription
processing. Each item includes verified solutions and detailed rationales to help
candidates master the competencies required for certification success. This guide
simulates certification-level difficulty and supports focused professional exam
preparation.
Table of Contents
I. Medications – Drug Classification and Therapeutic Uses
II. Medications – Dosage Forms and Routes of Administration
III. Patient Safety and Quality Assurance
IV. Order Entry and Processing
V. Federal Requirements – Controlled Substances and DEA
VI. Federal Requirements – HIPAA and FDA Regulations
VII. Pharmacy Calculations – Dosages and Conversions
VIII. Compounding – Sterile and Non-Sterile
IX. Pharmacy Operations and Inventory Management
X. Professional Ethics and Communication
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Question 1: A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for amoxicillin 500 mg
PO TID for 10 days. What is the total quantity to dispense?
A) 20 capsules
B) 30 capsules
C) 40 capsules
D) 50 capsules
Correct Answer: B
TID means three times daily. For 10 days, the calculation is 3 doses/day × 10 days
= 30 capsules. Options A, C, and D result from incorrect multiplication or
misinterpretation of the frequency abbreviation.
Question 2: Which of the following medications belongs to the proton pump
inhibitor (PPI) class?
A) Ranitidine
B) Omeprazole
C) Famotidine
D) Sucralfate
Correct Answer: B
Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor that irreversibly blocks the
hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme system in gastric parietal cells. Ranitidine
and famotidine are H2 receptor antagonists, and sucralfate is a mucosal
protectant.
Question 3: What is the generic name for the brand medication Lipitor?
A) Simvastatin
B) Atorvastatin
C) Rosuvastatin
D) Pravastatin
Correct Answer: B
Atorvastatin is the generic name for Lipitor, a statin used to treat hyperlipidemia.
Simvastatin is Zocor, rosuvastatin is Crestor, and pravastatin is Pravachol.
Question 4: A patient presents a prescription for oxycodone/acetaminophen 5/325
mg. What is the DEA schedule for this medication?
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A) Schedule II
B) Schedule III
C) Schedule IV
D) Schedule V
Correct Answer: A
Oxycodone is a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse
and dependence. Acetaminophen is not controlled. Combination products
containing oxycodone remain Schedule II. Schedule III examples include codeine
combinations, and Schedule IV includes benzodiazepines.
Question 5: Which auxiliary label should be placed on a prescription for
metronidazole?
A) "May cause drowsiness"
B) "Do not drink alcoholic beverages"
C) "Take with food"
D) "Avoid sunlight"
Correct Answer: B
Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol,
producing severe nausea, vomiting, and flushing. The auxiliary label "Do not drink
alcoholic beverages" is required. Drowsiness labels apply to sedatives, and
photosensitivity warnings apply to medications like tetracyclines.
Question 6: A prescription is written for "Lisinopril 10 mg PO QD." What does
QD mean?
A) Every other day
B) Four times daily
C) Once daily
D) Twice daily
Correct Answer: C
QD is derived from the Latin "quaque die," meaning once daily. QOD means every
other day, QID means four times daily, and BID means twice daily. Error-prone
abbreviations like QD are discouraged by ISMP in favor of "daily."
Question 7: Which of the following is a common side effect of metformin?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Gastrointestinal upset
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C) Weight gain
D) Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Metformin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects including diarrhea,
nausea, and abdominal discomfort. Unlike sulfonylureas, metformin does not
typically cause hypoglycemia when used alone. Weight gain is not a typical side
effect; metformin is weight-neutral or may promote slight weight loss.
Question 8: What is the maximum quantity of pseudoephedrine that can be
purchased in a single day under federal law?
A) 3.6 grams
B) 7.5 grams
C) 9 grams
D) 2.4 grams
Correct Answer: A
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act limits single-day purchases of
pseudoephedrine to 3.6 grams. The 30-day limit is 9 grams. Options B, C, and D
represent incorrect limits or the 30-day maximum.
Question 9: A pharmacy technician is preparing to compound a non-sterile oral
suspension. Which equipment is essential for accurate measurement of the liquid
vehicle?
A) Graduated cylinder
B) Beaker
C) Mortar and pestle
D) Spatula
Correct Answer: A
A graduated cylinder is essential for accurately measuring liquid volumes in
compounding. Beakers provide approximate measurements, mortars and pestles
are for grinding solids, and spatulas are for mixing and transferring powders.
Question 10: Which of the following medications requires refrigeration?
A) Amoxicillin oral suspension before reconstitution
B) Insulin
C) Metformin tablets
D) Lisinopril tablets
