NUR 231 EXAM 3 – ADULT NURSING II (2026) ACTUAL QUESTIONS &
VERIFIED ANSWERS | ILLINOIS STATE UNIVERSITY | GUARANTEE
PASS
NUR 231 EXAM 3 – ADULT NURSING II
Comprehensive Practice Exam & Answer Rationales
Illinois State University | 2026
Table of Contents
Section Content Questions
I Core Nursing Concepts & Clinical Priorities 1–40
II Diabetes Mellitus & Endocrine Management 41–80
III Respiratory Disorders & Oxygenation 81–120
IV Musculoskeletal & Female Reproductive Disorders 121–160
V Fluids, Electrolytes, Dosage Calculations & Integrated Clinical Judgment 161–200
SECTION I — CORE NURSING CONCEPTS & CLINICAL PRIORITIES
Questions 1–40
1. A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 6/10
B. A client with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation is 86%
C. A client awaiting discharge instructions
D. A client requesting assistance with bathing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia. Airway and breathing
problems take priority over pain, discharge teaching, and activities of daily living.
2. Which finding most strongly indicates an immediate respiratory problem?
,A. Respiratory rate of 18/min
B. Pink nail beds
C. New-onset confusion and restlessness
D. Oxygen saturation of 97%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Early hypoxemia can manifest as restlessness, anxiety, confusion, and altered mental
status. These findings may occur before profound cyanosis develops.
3. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Temperature 37.1°C
B. Heart rate 88/min
C. Respiratory rate 30/min with accessory-muscle use
D. Blood pressure 128/76 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tachypnea with accessory-muscle use indicates increased work of breathing and
possible respiratory compromise. The nurse should promptly assess airway and oxygenation.
4. A postoperative client suddenly becomes dyspneic and reports sharp chest pain. What
complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Atelectasis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Constipation
D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain are classic warning signs of pulmonary
embolism. This is an emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
5. Which nursing action best demonstrates the principle of ABC prioritization?
A. Administering scheduled analgesia
B. Helping a stable client ambulate
C. Treating severe airway obstruction before addressing pain
D. Completing routine documentation
,Correct answer: C
Rationale: Airway, breathing, and circulation take precedence over nonurgent needs. Severe
airway obstruction can rapidly become life-threatening.
6. Which statement best describes secondary prevention?
A. Rehabilitation after a stroke
B. Screening for cervical cancer
C. Administering antibiotics for pneumonia
D. Teaching a patient how to use a walker
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, including screening
procedures such as cervical cancer screening.
7. Which intervention is an example of tertiary prevention?
A. Smoking-prevention education
B. Blood-pressure screening
C. Rehabilitation after a stroke
D. Vaccination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention reduces disability and complications after a disease or injury has
occurred. Rehabilitation is a classic example.
8. Which statement by a nurse best demonstrates therapeutic communication?
A. “You shouldn't be worried about this.”
B. “Everything will be fine.”
C. “Tell me what concerns you most about your diagnosis.”
D. “I know exactly how you feel.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage the patient to express concerns. The other
statements minimize feelings or make promises the nurse cannot guarantee.
, 9. A client is deteriorating and the nurse needs to notify the provider. Which information
should be communicated first?
A. The patient's favorite foods
B. Current assessment findings and vital-sign changes
C. The patient's family history from admission
D. The patient's discharge preference
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The provider needs current, clinically relevant information to evaluate the patient's
deterioration and determine appropriate treatment.
10. Which finding is most concerning in a client with possible hypovolemia?
A. Moist mucous membranes
B. Urine output of 10 mL/hr
C. Bounding pulse
D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urine output of 10 mL/hr is markedly reduced and may indicate decreased renal
perfusion from inadequate circulating volume.
11. Which laboratory result is most useful for evaluating oxygen-carrying capacity?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Creatinine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hemoglobin carries oxygen in the blood. Low hemoglobin can reduce tissue oxygen
delivery and contribute to fatigue and hypoxia-related symptoms.
12. Which assessment finding may indicate impaired tissue perfusion?
A. Warm skin with brisk capillary refill
B. Cool extremities and delayed capillary refill
VERIFIED ANSWERS | ILLINOIS STATE UNIVERSITY | GUARANTEE
PASS
NUR 231 EXAM 3 – ADULT NURSING II
Comprehensive Practice Exam & Answer Rationales
Illinois State University | 2026
Table of Contents
Section Content Questions
I Core Nursing Concepts & Clinical Priorities 1–40
II Diabetes Mellitus & Endocrine Management 41–80
III Respiratory Disorders & Oxygenation 81–120
IV Musculoskeletal & Female Reproductive Disorders 121–160
V Fluids, Electrolytes, Dosage Calculations & Integrated Clinical Judgment 161–200
SECTION I — CORE NURSING CONCEPTS & CLINICAL PRIORITIES
Questions 1–40
1. A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 6/10
B. A client with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation is 86%
C. A client awaiting discharge instructions
D. A client requesting assistance with bathing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia. Airway and breathing
problems take priority over pain, discharge teaching, and activities of daily living.
2. Which finding most strongly indicates an immediate respiratory problem?
,A. Respiratory rate of 18/min
B. Pink nail beds
C. New-onset confusion and restlessness
D. Oxygen saturation of 97%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Early hypoxemia can manifest as restlessness, anxiety, confusion, and altered mental
status. These findings may occur before profound cyanosis develops.
3. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Temperature 37.1°C
B. Heart rate 88/min
C. Respiratory rate 30/min with accessory-muscle use
D. Blood pressure 128/76 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tachypnea with accessory-muscle use indicates increased work of breathing and
possible respiratory compromise. The nurse should promptly assess airway and oxygenation.
4. A postoperative client suddenly becomes dyspneic and reports sharp chest pain. What
complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Atelectasis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Constipation
D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain are classic warning signs of pulmonary
embolism. This is an emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
5. Which nursing action best demonstrates the principle of ABC prioritization?
A. Administering scheduled analgesia
B. Helping a stable client ambulate
C. Treating severe airway obstruction before addressing pain
D. Completing routine documentation
,Correct answer: C
Rationale: Airway, breathing, and circulation take precedence over nonurgent needs. Severe
airway obstruction can rapidly become life-threatening.
6. Which statement best describes secondary prevention?
A. Rehabilitation after a stroke
B. Screening for cervical cancer
C. Administering antibiotics for pneumonia
D. Teaching a patient how to use a walker
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, including screening
procedures such as cervical cancer screening.
7. Which intervention is an example of tertiary prevention?
A. Smoking-prevention education
B. Blood-pressure screening
C. Rehabilitation after a stroke
D. Vaccination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention reduces disability and complications after a disease or injury has
occurred. Rehabilitation is a classic example.
8. Which statement by a nurse best demonstrates therapeutic communication?
A. “You shouldn't be worried about this.”
B. “Everything will be fine.”
C. “Tell me what concerns you most about your diagnosis.”
D. “I know exactly how you feel.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Open-ended questions encourage the patient to express concerns. The other
statements minimize feelings or make promises the nurse cannot guarantee.
, 9. A client is deteriorating and the nurse needs to notify the provider. Which information
should be communicated first?
A. The patient's favorite foods
B. Current assessment findings and vital-sign changes
C. The patient's family history from admission
D. The patient's discharge preference
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The provider needs current, clinically relevant information to evaluate the patient's
deterioration and determine appropriate treatment.
10. Which finding is most concerning in a client with possible hypovolemia?
A. Moist mucous membranes
B. Urine output of 10 mL/hr
C. Bounding pulse
D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urine output of 10 mL/hr is markedly reduced and may indicate decreased renal
perfusion from inadequate circulating volume.
11. Which laboratory result is most useful for evaluating oxygen-carrying capacity?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Creatinine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hemoglobin carries oxygen in the blood. Low hemoglobin can reduce tissue oxygen
delivery and contribute to fatigue and hypoxia-related symptoms.
12. Which assessment finding may indicate impaired tissue perfusion?
A. Warm skin with brisk capillary refill
B. Cool extremities and delayed capillary refill
