NURS 5220 EXAM 2 (UTA) QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD
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CORE DOMAINS
• Neurologic Assessment and Cranial Nerves
• Musculoskeletal Assessment
• Cardiovascular Assessment
• Peripheral Vascular Assessment
• Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Assessment
• Cultural Competence and Health History
• Clinical Reasoning and Diagnostic Decision-Making
• Ethics and Professional Standards in Assessment
Introduction
The NURS 5220 Exam 2 evaluates a graduate nursing student's competency in performing
comprehensive physical assessments across multiple body systems. The exam assesses knowledge of
neurologic, musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal assessment techniques, as well as
cultural competence and clinical reasoning. Candidates must demonstrate proficiency in identifying
normal and abnormal findings, interpreting diagnostic signs, and applying evidence-based assessment
principles. The multiple-choice format includes knowledge-based and scenario-driven questions
emphasizing critical thinking and advanced practice nursing application.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 58-year-old male presents with a resting tremor, bradykinesia, and cogwheel rigidity. Which
pathophysiological process best explains these findings?
A. Demyelination of the corticospinal tract
B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra
C. Excessive acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
D. Autoimmune destruction of the myelin sheath
Correct answer: B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra
RATIONALE: Parkinson disease results from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the
substantia nigra, leading to an imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine and producing tremor,
rigidity, and bradykinesia .
,2. A 72-year-old female presents with sudden-onset right-sided weakness and aphasia. Which type of
stroke is most likely?
A. Hemorrhagic stroke
B. Ischemic stroke
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct answer: B. Ischemic stroke
RATIONALE: Sudden-onset focal neurologic deficits are most commonly caused by ischemic stroke,
which results from arterial occlusion and accounts for approximately 87% of all strokes .
3. Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?
A. Optic nerve (II)
B. Olfactory nerve (I)
C. Trigeminal nerve (V)
D. Facial nerve (VII)
Correct answer: B. Olfactory nerve (I)
RATIONALE: The olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) is responsible for smell (olfaction). Testing involves
asking the patient to identify odors presented to each nostril while occluding the other .
4. Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?
A. Olfactory nerve (I)
B. Optic nerve (II)
C. Oculomotor nerve (III)
D. Trigeminal nerve (V)
Correct answer: B. Optic nerve (II)
RATIONALE: The optic nerve (cranial nerve II) is responsible for vision. Testing includes visual acuity,
visual fields, and pupillary light reflex .
5. Which cranial nerve is responsible for extraocular movements?
A. Optic nerve (II)
B. Oculomotor, Trochlear, and Abducens nerves (III, IV, VI)
C. Trigeminal nerve (V)
D. Facial nerve (VII)
Correct answer: B. Oculomotor, Trochlear, and Abducens nerves (III, IV, VI)
RATIONALE: Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI are responsible for eye movements. Testing involves the H-
pattern and pupillary response .
6. Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial sensation and mastication?
A. Trigeminal nerve (V)
B. Facial nerve (VII)
, C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
D. Vagus nerve (X)
Correct answer: A. Trigeminal nerve (V)
RATIONALE: The trigeminal nerve (V) is responsible for sensation in the face and mastication. It has
three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular .
7. Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression?
A. Trigeminal nerve (V)
B. Facial nerve (VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
D. Vagus nerve (X)
Correct answer: B. Facial nerve (VII)
RATIONALE: The facial nerve (VII) provides motor innervation to the muscles involved in facial
expression .
8. Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance?
A. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
C. Vagus nerve (X)
D. Spinal accessory nerve (XI)
Correct answer: A. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
RATIONALE: The vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) is responsible for hearing through the cochlear
branch and balance through the vestibular branch .
9. Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior third of the tongue and gag reflex?
A. Facial nerve (VII)
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
C. Vagus nerve (X)
D. Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
Correct answer: B. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
RATIONALE: The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) provides sensory innervation to the posterior third of
the tongue and contributes to the afferent limb of the gag reflex .
10. Which cranial nerve is responsible for palate elevation and swallowing?
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
B. Vagus nerve (X)
C. Spinal accessory nerve (XI)
D. Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD
CORE DOMAINS
• Neurologic Assessment and Cranial Nerves
• Musculoskeletal Assessment
• Cardiovascular Assessment
• Peripheral Vascular Assessment
• Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Assessment
• Cultural Competence and Health History
• Clinical Reasoning and Diagnostic Decision-Making
• Ethics and Professional Standards in Assessment
Introduction
The NURS 5220 Exam 2 evaluates a graduate nursing student's competency in performing
comprehensive physical assessments across multiple body systems. The exam assesses knowledge of
neurologic, musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal assessment techniques, as well as
cultural competence and clinical reasoning. Candidates must demonstrate proficiency in identifying
normal and abnormal findings, interpreting diagnostic signs, and applying evidence-based assessment
principles. The multiple-choice format includes knowledge-based and scenario-driven questions
emphasizing critical thinking and advanced practice nursing application.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 58-year-old male presents with a resting tremor, bradykinesia, and cogwheel rigidity. Which
pathophysiological process best explains these findings?
A. Demyelination of the corticospinal tract
B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra
C. Excessive acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
D. Autoimmune destruction of the myelin sheath
Correct answer: B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra
RATIONALE: Parkinson disease results from the loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the
substantia nigra, leading to an imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine and producing tremor,
rigidity, and bradykinesia .
,2. A 72-year-old female presents with sudden-onset right-sided weakness and aphasia. Which type of
stroke is most likely?
A. Hemorrhagic stroke
B. Ischemic stroke
C. Transient ischemic attack
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct answer: B. Ischemic stroke
RATIONALE: Sudden-onset focal neurologic deficits are most commonly caused by ischemic stroke,
which results from arterial occlusion and accounts for approximately 87% of all strokes .
3. Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?
A. Optic nerve (II)
B. Olfactory nerve (I)
C. Trigeminal nerve (V)
D. Facial nerve (VII)
Correct answer: B. Olfactory nerve (I)
RATIONALE: The olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) is responsible for smell (olfaction). Testing involves
asking the patient to identify odors presented to each nostril while occluding the other .
4. Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?
A. Olfactory nerve (I)
B. Optic nerve (II)
C. Oculomotor nerve (III)
D. Trigeminal nerve (V)
Correct answer: B. Optic nerve (II)
RATIONALE: The optic nerve (cranial nerve II) is responsible for vision. Testing includes visual acuity,
visual fields, and pupillary light reflex .
5. Which cranial nerve is responsible for extraocular movements?
A. Optic nerve (II)
B. Oculomotor, Trochlear, and Abducens nerves (III, IV, VI)
C. Trigeminal nerve (V)
D. Facial nerve (VII)
Correct answer: B. Oculomotor, Trochlear, and Abducens nerves (III, IV, VI)
RATIONALE: Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI are responsible for eye movements. Testing involves the H-
pattern and pupillary response .
6. Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial sensation and mastication?
A. Trigeminal nerve (V)
B. Facial nerve (VII)
, C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
D. Vagus nerve (X)
Correct answer: A. Trigeminal nerve (V)
RATIONALE: The trigeminal nerve (V) is responsible for sensation in the face and mastication. It has
three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular .
7. Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression?
A. Trigeminal nerve (V)
B. Facial nerve (VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
D. Vagus nerve (X)
Correct answer: B. Facial nerve (VII)
RATIONALE: The facial nerve (VII) provides motor innervation to the muscles involved in facial
expression .
8. Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance?
A. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
C. Vagus nerve (X)
D. Spinal accessory nerve (XI)
Correct answer: A. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
RATIONALE: The vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) is responsible for hearing through the cochlear
branch and balance through the vestibular branch .
9. Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior third of the tongue and gag reflex?
A. Facial nerve (VII)
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
C. Vagus nerve (X)
D. Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
Correct answer: B. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
RATIONALE: The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) provides sensory innervation to the posterior third of
the tongue and contributes to the afferent limb of the gag reflex .
10. Which cranial nerve is responsible for palate elevation and swallowing?
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
B. Vagus nerve (X)
C. Spinal accessory nerve (XI)
D. Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
