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SARAH MICHELLE LIVE REVIEW COMPREHENSIVE EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEE PASS

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SARAH MICHELLE LIVE REVIEW COMPREHENSIVE EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEE PASS

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SARAH MICHELLE LIVE REVIEW
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM REVIEW
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 100%
GUARANTEE PASS


1. A 65-year-old patient presents with a new-onset murmur heard best at the second

intercostal space, right sternal border, which radiates to the neck. What is the most likely

diagnosis?

A. Aortic Stenosis


B. Mitral Regurgitation


C. Aortic Regurgitation


D. Mitral Stenosis


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Aortic stenosis is a systolic murmur heard at the right upper

sternal border (2nd ICS) and typically radiates to the carotid arteries/neck.


2. Which of the following laboratory findings is most indicative of subclinical hypothyroidism?

A. High TSH, Normal Free T4


B. High TSH, Low Free T4


C. Low TSH, Low Free T4

,D. Low TSH, Normal Free T4


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Subclinical hypothyroidism is defined by an elevated TSH level

while the Free T4 remains within the normal reference range.


3. A patient with a history of heart failure and a reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) should

avoid which class of antihypertensives due to the risk of worsening edema and heart failure

exacerbation?

A. ACE Inhibitors


B. Beta Blockers


C. Non-dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers


D. Thiazide Diuretics


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Non-dihydropyridine CCBs like Verapamil and Diltiazem have

negative inotropic effects and are generally contraindicated in patients with HFrEF.


4. According to the GINA guidelines, what is the preferred first-line ‘reliever’ medication for a

patient with mild intermittent asthma?

A. Albuterol (SABA) alone


B. Salmeterol (LABA) alone


C. Low-dose ICS-formoterol

, D. Oral Prednisone


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Recent GINA guidelines recommend low-dose ICS-formoterol as

the preferred reliever for all asthma severities to reduce the risk of exacerbations

compared to SABA alone.


5. A 24-year-old female presents with a ‘strawberry cervix’ and a profuse, malodorous,

yellow-green vaginal discharge. What is the gold standard treatment?

A. Fluconazole 150mg PO once


B. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM once


C. Metronidazole 2g PO once or 500mg BID for 7 days


D. Azithromycin 1g PO once


Answer: C


Conceptual Explanation: Strawberry cervix and yellow-green discharge are classic signs

of Trichomoniasis, which is treated with Metronidazole (Flagyl).


6. Which cranial nerve is primarily affected in a patient presenting with Bell’s Palsy?

A. Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)


B. Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)


C. Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)


D. Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)

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