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Comprehensive NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4 Review 2026/2027 | Practice Questions, Verified Answers, and Expert Rationales (Galen College of Nursing)

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD – Prepare for the NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4 with this comprehensive review guide covering essential medical-surgical nursing concepts for the 2026/2027 testing cycle at Galen College of Nursing. Topics include cardiovascular disorders (heart failure, hypertension, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, dysrhythmias, valvular disorders, vascular disorders), respiratory disorders (COPD, asthma, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, pneumothorax, mechanical ventilation, ARDS), renal and urinary disorders (acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, dialysis, urinary tract infections, kidney stones, bladder cancer), endocrine disorders (diabetes mellitus, thyroid disorders, adrenal disorders, pituitary disorders), gastrointestinal disorders (GI bleeding, liver failure, cirrhosis, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, inflammatory bowel disease), hematologic disorders (anemia, leukemia, lymphoma, clotting disorders, blood transfusions), and more. Features 250+ multiple-choice practice questions with verified correct answers and expert rationales, mapped to Lewis's Medical-Surgical Nursing and Ignatavicius. Ideal for ADN, BSN, and LPN students at Galen College of Nursing and beyond. This is a digital PDF product; no physical item will be shipped.

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Comprehensive NSG 3250 Adult Health I Exam 4
Review 2026/2027 | Practice Questions, Verified
Answers, and Expert Rationales (Galen College of
Nursing)
1. A client with a stroke has left-sided neglect. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A) Place all items on the right side
B) Approach from the left and remind the client to scan left
C) Restrain the right arm
D) Keep the room dark
Answer: B
Rationale: Encourage attention to the neglected side with verbal and visual cues.




2. A client with a seizure disorder is on phenytoin. Which finding indicates toxicity?
A) Gingival hyperplasia
B) Nystagmus and ataxia
C) Hirsutism
D) Rash
Answer: B
Rationale: Nystagmus, ataxia, and lethargy are signs of phenytoin toxicity.




3. A client with a head injury has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8. What is the priority action?
A) Notify the neurosurgeon
B) Assess airway and breathing
C) Prepare for CT scan

,D) Administer mannitol
Answer: B
Rationale: GCS ≤8 indicates severe brain injury; airway protection is priority.




4. A client with a spinal cord injury at T6 has a severe headache, sweating, and hypertension. What
is the priority action?
A) Administer hydralazine
B) Place in sitting position and check for bladder distention
C) Notify provider
D) Apply cool compress
Answer: B
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia; remove triggering stimulus immediately.




5. A client with Parkinson’s disease is started on carbidopa-levodopa. Which finding indicates
therapeutic response?
A) Decreased tremors and improved mobility
B) Decreased tremors and improved mobility
C) Increased salivation
D) Bradycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Levodopa improves tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.




6. A client with multiple sclerosis is started on interferon beta-1a. Which side effect should the
nurse discuss?
A) Alopecia
B) Flu-like symptoms
C) Cardiotoxicity
D) Weight gain

,Answer: B
Rationale: Interferon commonly causes fever, myalgia, and fatigue.




7. A client with meningitis is admitted. Which precaution is required?
A) Standard
B) Droplet
C) Contact
D) Airborne
Answer: B
Rationale: Meningococcal and H. influenzae meningitis require droplet precautions for 24 hours.




8. A client with a traumatic brain injury has ICP 22 mmHg and MAP 85 mmHg. What is CPP?
A) 107 mmHg
B) 63 mmHg
C) 85 mmHg
D) 70 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: CPP = MAP – ICP = 85 – 22 = 63 mmHg.




9. A client with a brain tumor has SIADH. Which finding is expected?
A) Hypernatremia and polyuria
B) Hyponatremia and concentrated urine
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: SIADH causes water retention and dilutional hyponatremia.

, 10. A client with a stroke has dysphagia. What is the priority action?
A) Order pureed diet
B) Place NPO and consult speech therapy
C) Thicken liquids
D) Feed small meals
Answer: B
Rationale: Dysphagia increases aspiration risk; keep NPO until evaluation.




11. A client with a femur fracture develops severe pain, pallor, and paresthesia. What is the
priority action?
A) Administer analgesia
B) Notify the provider immediately
C) Apply ice
D) Elevate the leg
Answer: B
Rationale: Signs suggest compartment syndrome or neurovascular compromise.




12. A client with a hip replacement is at risk for dislocation. Which instruction is correct?
A) Cross legs when sitting
B) Keep knees below hips and use abduction pillow
C) Bend forward to pick up items
D) Sleep on the operative side
Answer: B
Rationale: Avoid hip flexion >90°, adduction, and internal rotation.




13. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. Which instruction is correct?
A) Take with food
B) Take on empty stomach and remain upright 30 minutes

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