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Galen College of Nursing NSG 3250 Adult Health 3 Exam 2 Study Guide: Review Questions and Rationales (2026/2027)

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD – Prepare for the NSG 3250 Adult Health 3 Exam 2 with this comprehensive study guide covering essential medical-surgical nursing concepts for the 2026/2027 testing cycle. Topics include cardiovascular disorders (heart failure, hypertension, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, dysrhythmias), respiratory disorders (COPD, asthma, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, mechanical ventilation), renal and urinary disorders (acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, dialysis, urinary tract infections), neurologic disorders (stroke, seizures, increased intracranial pressure, meningitis), endocrine disorders (diabetes mellitus, thyroid disorders, adrenal disorders), gastrointestinal disorders (GI bleeding, liver failure, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction), musculoskeletal disorders (fractures, joint replacement, osteoporosis), and more. Features 250+ multiple-choice review questions with verified correct answers and detailed rationales, mapped to Lewis's Medical-Surgical Nursing and Ignatavicius. Ideal for ADN, BSN, and LPN students at Galen College of Nursing and beyond. This is a digital PDF product; no physical item will be shipped.

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Galen College of Nursing NSG 3250 Adult Health
3 Exam 2 Study Guide: Review Questions and
Rationales (2026/2027)

Question 1

A client with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 25%. Which medication is first-line to
reduce mortality?
A) Furosemide
B) *Metoprolol succinate
C) Digoxin
D) Hydralazine



Answer

Answer: B



Rationale

Beta-blockers reduce mortality in HFrEF. Diuretics control symptoms only.




Question 2

A client with COPD has an SpO2 of 88% on 2 L/min. Which oxygen delivery device is safest?
A) Non-rebreather at 10 L/min
B) *Venturi mask at 28%
C) Simple face mask at 6 L/min
D) Nasal cannula at 6 L/min



Answer

Answer: B



Rationale

,Venturi provides precise FiO2, reducing CO2 retention risk in COPD.




Question 3

A client with AKI has a potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which finding is most concerning?
A) Muscle weakness
B) *Peaked T waves
C) Nausea
D) Polyuria



Answer

Answer: B



Rationale

Hyperkalemia causes peaked T waves, then wide QRS, and cardiac arrest.




Question 4

A client with DKA has a blood glucose of 450 mg/dL. Which initial IV fluid is appropriate?
A) D5W
B) *0.9% normal saline
C) 0.45% normal saline
D) Lactated Ringer’s



Answer

Answer: B



Rationale

Isotonic fluids restore volume before insulin is started.

,Question 5

A client with cirrhosis has asterixis. Which medication is anticipated?
A) Spironolactone
B) *Lactulose
C) Furosemide
D) Octreotide



Answer

Answer: B



Rationale

Lactulose traps ammonia in the gut, reducing encephalopathy.




Question 6

A client with a stroke has left-sided neglect. Which intervention is appropriate?
A) Place items on the right side
B) *Approach from the left and remind to scan left
C) Restrain the right arm
D) Keep the room dark



Answer

Answer: B



Rationale

Encourage attention to the neglected side.




Question 7

A client with a pulmonary embolism is on heparin. aPTT is 110 sec. Which action is correct?
A) Continue same rate

, B) *Decrease rate and notify provider
C) Increase rate
D) Stop heparin and give protamine



Answer

Answer: B



Rationale

aPTT >75 is supratherapeutic; reduce rate.




Question 8

A client with sepsis has a lactate of 4 mmol/L. Which action is priority?
A) Administer antibiotics
B) *Infuse 30 mL/kg crystalloid bolus
C) Obtain blood cultures
D) Start vasopressors



Answer

Answer: B



Rationale

Fluid resuscitation is first for sepsis-induced hypoperfusion.




Question 9

A client with anaphylaxis has stridor. Which medication is first?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) *Epinephrine IM
C) Albuterol nebulizer
D) Methylprednisolone

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