NCLEX-RN Practice Exam| YEAR 2026–2027 |
Comprehensive 100-Question Practice Test with
Answers & Rationales| Pdf Access ALREADY
GRADED A+.
Questions 1–25
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe shortness of breath. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate 24/min
B. Oxygen saturation 88%
C. Heart rate 104/min
D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F)
Answer: B. Oxygen saturation 88%
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia and requires prompt intervention.
The nurse should assess the client, position them appropriately, and administer oxygen as
prescribed.
2. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and a 2-kg (4.4-lb) weight
gain over 2 days. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Dehydration
B. Fluid retention
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Improved cardiac function
Answer: B. Fluid retention
Rationale: Rapid weight gain is an early indicator of fluid retention in heart failure. Increasing
dyspnea may indicate worsening pulmonary congestion.
,3. Which prescription should the nurse question for a client with potassium of 2.8 mEq/L?
A. Cardiac monitoring
B. Potassium replacement
C. Furosemide IV
D. Repeat potassium level
Answer: C. Furosemide IV
Rationale: Furosemide can further lower potassium. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L represents
significant hypokalemia and increases the risk of dysrhythmias.
4. A client receiving digoxin has an apical pulse of 52/min. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Give an additional dose
D. Administer potassium immediately
Answer: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should generally withhold digoxin when
the adult apical pulse is below the prescribed safe parameter, commonly 60/min, and notify the
provider.
5. Which finding is most concerning in a client receiving morphine?
A. Constipation
B. Nausea
C. Respiratory rate 8/min
D. Drowsiness
Answer: C. Respiratory rate 8/min
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 8/min requires
immediate assessment and intervention.
6. A client taking warfarin should be instructed to report which finding immediately?
,A. Mild hunger
B. Black, tarry stools
C. Occasional sneezing
D. Increased appetite
Answer: B. Black, tarry stools
Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication of
anticoagulant therapy.
7. Which food is highest in potassium?
A. White rice
B. Banana
C. Bread
D. Applesauce
Answer: B. Banana
Rationale: Bananas are a potassium-rich food. Other potassium-rich foods include oranges,
potatoes, tomatoes, spinach, and dried fruits.
8. A client with diabetes is confused, diaphoretic, and shaky. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose
C. Encourage exercise
D. Restrict fluids
Answer: B. Check blood glucose
Rationale: These are classic manifestations of hypoglycemia. Blood glucose should be checked
promptly if possible, followed by appropriate treatment.
9. A conscious client has a blood glucose of 54 mg/dL. Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
B. Administer regular insulin
C. Restrict oral intake
D. Give a high-protein meal only
, Answer: A. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: The standard initial treatment for conscious clients with hypoglycemia is
approximately 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate, followed by reassessment.
10. Which assessment finding is expected in a client with iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Bradycardia
B. Fatigue
C. Hypertension
D. Increased oxygen saturation
Answer: B. Fatigue
Rationale: Reduced hemoglobin decreases oxygen-carrying capacity, commonly causing fatigue,
weakness, pallor, and exertional dyspnea.
11. A client has suspected tuberculosis. Which precautions are required?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Protective isolation
Answer: C. Airborne
Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, including an appropriate
respirator and airborne infection isolation room when available.
12. Which PPE is essential when entering the room of a client on airborne precautions?
A. Surgical mask only
B. N95 or equivalent respirator
C. Sterile gloves only
D. Shoe covers only
Answer: B. N95 or equivalent respirator
Rationale: Airborne organisms can remain suspended in the air. An appropriately fitted
respirator is required.
Comprehensive 100-Question Practice Test with
Answers & Rationales| Pdf Access ALREADY
GRADED A+.
Questions 1–25
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe shortness of breath. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate 24/min
B. Oxygen saturation 88%
C. Heart rate 104/min
D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F)
Answer: B. Oxygen saturation 88%
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia and requires prompt intervention.
The nurse should assess the client, position them appropriately, and administer oxygen as
prescribed.
2. A client with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and a 2-kg (4.4-lb) weight
gain over 2 days. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Dehydration
B. Fluid retention
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Improved cardiac function
Answer: B. Fluid retention
Rationale: Rapid weight gain is an early indicator of fluid retention in heart failure. Increasing
dyspnea may indicate worsening pulmonary congestion.
,3. Which prescription should the nurse question for a client with potassium of 2.8 mEq/L?
A. Cardiac monitoring
B. Potassium replacement
C. Furosemide IV
D. Repeat potassium level
Answer: C. Furosemide IV
Rationale: Furosemide can further lower potassium. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L represents
significant hypokalemia and increases the risk of dysrhythmias.
4. A client receiving digoxin has an apical pulse of 52/min. What should the nurse do?
A. Administer the medication
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Give an additional dose
D. Administer potassium immediately
Answer: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. The nurse should generally withhold digoxin when
the adult apical pulse is below the prescribed safe parameter, commonly 60/min, and notify the
provider.
5. Which finding is most concerning in a client receiving morphine?
A. Constipation
B. Nausea
C. Respiratory rate 8/min
D. Drowsiness
Answer: C. Respiratory rate 8/min
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 8/min requires
immediate assessment and intervention.
6. A client taking warfarin should be instructed to report which finding immediately?
,A. Mild hunger
B. Black, tarry stools
C. Occasional sneezing
D. Increased appetite
Answer: B. Black, tarry stools
Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication of
anticoagulant therapy.
7. Which food is highest in potassium?
A. White rice
B. Banana
C. Bread
D. Applesauce
Answer: B. Banana
Rationale: Bananas are a potassium-rich food. Other potassium-rich foods include oranges,
potatoes, tomatoes, spinach, and dried fruits.
8. A client with diabetes is confused, diaphoretic, and shaky. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose
C. Encourage exercise
D. Restrict fluids
Answer: B. Check blood glucose
Rationale: These are classic manifestations of hypoglycemia. Blood glucose should be checked
promptly if possible, followed by appropriate treatment.
9. A conscious client has a blood glucose of 54 mg/dL. Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
B. Administer regular insulin
C. Restrict oral intake
D. Give a high-protein meal only
, Answer: A. Give 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: The standard initial treatment for conscious clients with hypoglycemia is
approximately 15 g of rapid-acting carbohydrate, followed by reassessment.
10. Which assessment finding is expected in a client with iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Bradycardia
B. Fatigue
C. Hypertension
D. Increased oxygen saturation
Answer: B. Fatigue
Rationale: Reduced hemoglobin decreases oxygen-carrying capacity, commonly causing fatigue,
weakness, pallor, and exertional dyspnea.
11. A client has suspected tuberculosis. Which precautions are required?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Protective isolation
Answer: C. Airborne
Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, including an appropriate
respirator and airborne infection isolation room when available.
12. Which PPE is essential when entering the room of a client on airborne precautions?
A. Surgical mask only
B. N95 or equivalent respirator
C. Sterile gloves only
D. Shoe covers only
Answer: B. N95 or equivalent respirator
Rationale: Airborne organisms can remain suspended in the air. An appropriately fitted
respirator is required.
