CTRN (Certified Transport Registered
Nurse) Exam| YEAR 2026–2027 |
Comprehensive 150-Question Practice Test
with Answers & Rationales| Pdf Access.
Domain 1: General Principles of Ground Transport Nursing Practice
1. A transport nurse is preparing for an interfacility transfer of a patient on a mechanical
ventilator. Which action is MOST important before departure?
A) Ensure the ventilator has a full oxygen cylinder
B) Verify the ventilator settings match the sending facility's orders and confirm battery charge
C) Request a copy of the patient's advance directive
D) Notify the receiving facility of estimated arrival time
Answer: B
Rationale: Verifying ventilator settings and battery function directly impacts patient safety
during transport. Equipment failure is a leading cause of adverse events during transport .
2. During rotor-wing transport, the crew experiences a sudden loss of communication with
dispatch. Which action demonstrates appropriate Crew Resource Management (CRM)?
A) The pilot assumes all decision-making authority
B) All crew members share available information and work collaboratively to problem-solve
C) Continue the mission without communication
D) Abort the mission immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: CRM emphasizes shared situational awareness, open communication, and
collaborative decision-making among all crew members, regardless of rank or role .
3. A patient refuses transport after consenting to an interfacility transfer. Which legal principle
applies?
A) The patient cannot refuse once transport has begun
B) A competent adult may withdraw consent at any time
C) The sending physician must override the refusal
D) Only a court order can stop transport
,Answer: B
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse or withdraw consent for medical
treatment or transport at any time. The transport team must respect this decision and
document the refusal .
4. EMTALA regulations apply to which transport scenario?
A) Scene response by a ground ambulance
B) Interfacility transfer from a hospital with an emergency department
C) Rotor-wing transport from a routine clinic appointment
D) Non-emergent transport of a stable patient
Answer: B
Rationale: EMTALA applies to any patient who presents to a hospital with an emergency
department. It governs when and how a patient may be transferred to another facility, including
medical screening and stabilization requirements .
5. Which physiologic stressor is UNIQUE to rotor-wing transport compared to ground
transport?
A) Motion sickness
B) Noise exposure
C) Vibration
D) Altitude-related gas expansion
Answer: D
Rationale: Rotor-wing transport involves significant altitude changes (typically 500-1500 feet
AGL). According to Boyle's Law, gas volumes expand at altitude, affecting air-filled spaces
(pneumothorax, endotracheal tube cuffs, bowel gas). This requires specific interventions such as
monitoring ETT cuff pressure .
6. The transport nurse must document:
A) Only arrival time
B) Only patient complaints
C) Patient condition, interventions, and response
D) Equipment purchases
Answer: C
Rationale: Complete documentation supports continuity of care and legal requirements.
Documentation should include the patient's condition, all interventions performed, and the
patient's response to those interventions .
7. Transport nurses should communicate using:
A) Informal conversations
,B) Unstructured reports
C) Standardized handoff communication
D) Written notes only
Answer: C
Rationale: Structured communication improves safety and reduces information loss during
handoffs between sending facility, transport crew, and receiving facility .
8. The safest transport practice regarding patient identification is:
A) Use room number only
B) Ask another patient
C) Verify using approved identifiers
D) Skip identification in emergencies
Answer: C
Rationale: Correct identification prevents serious treatment errors. Approved identifiers
typically include name and date of birth or medical record number .
9. The purpose of pre-transport assessment is to:
A) Delay transport
B) Replace physician orders
C) Identify risks and prepare appropriate interventions
D) Reduce communication
Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment allows planning for patient needs during movement. Identifying
potential risks before departure reduces the likelihood of deterioration during transport .
10. The most important skill for transport nurses is:
A) Speed
B) Memorization
C) Critical thinking and rapid assessment
D) Avoiding communication
Answer: C
Rationale: Transport environments require independent decision-making and assessment skills.
Nurses must be able to rapidly assess and intervene with limited resources .
Domain 2: Resuscitation Principles
, 11. A 30-year-old male is struck by a car. On scene, he is unresponsive with agonal
respirations and no palpable pulse. What is the priority intervention?
A) Establish two large-bore IVs
B) Begin high-quality CPR and apply an AED
C) Rapid sequence intubation
D) C-collar and backboard application
Answer: B
Rationale: Unresponsive + agonal respirations + no pulse = cardiac arrest. High-quality CPR is
the immediate priority. Airway and circulation interventions follow after pulse check and rhythm
analysis .
12. A patient in cardiac arrest is being transported. The cardiac monitor shows ventricular
fibrillation. What is the priority intervention?
A) Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV
B) Perform defibrillation at 200 J biphasic
C) Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV
D) Perform chest compressions
Answer: B
Rationale: For ventricular fibrillation, immediate defibrillation is the priority intervention. Early
defibrillation is the single most important factor in survival from VF cardiac arrest. While
epinephrine and amiodarone are important, they should not delay defibrillation .
13. During transport, a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax deteriorates. What is
the priority intervention?
A) Administer high-flow oxygen
B) Perform needle decompression
C) Request immediate surgical intervention
D) Increase the rate of IV fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate needle
decompression. The needle should be inserted in the second intercostal space at the
midclavicular line. This should be followed by chest tube placement .
14. A patient with anaphylaxis is being transported. Which medication should be
administered first?
A) Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV
B) Epinephrine 0.3-0.5 mg IM
Nurse) Exam| YEAR 2026–2027 |
Comprehensive 150-Question Practice Test
with Answers & Rationales| Pdf Access.
Domain 1: General Principles of Ground Transport Nursing Practice
1. A transport nurse is preparing for an interfacility transfer of a patient on a mechanical
ventilator. Which action is MOST important before departure?
A) Ensure the ventilator has a full oxygen cylinder
B) Verify the ventilator settings match the sending facility's orders and confirm battery charge
C) Request a copy of the patient's advance directive
D) Notify the receiving facility of estimated arrival time
Answer: B
Rationale: Verifying ventilator settings and battery function directly impacts patient safety
during transport. Equipment failure is a leading cause of adverse events during transport .
2. During rotor-wing transport, the crew experiences a sudden loss of communication with
dispatch. Which action demonstrates appropriate Crew Resource Management (CRM)?
A) The pilot assumes all decision-making authority
B) All crew members share available information and work collaboratively to problem-solve
C) Continue the mission without communication
D) Abort the mission immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: CRM emphasizes shared situational awareness, open communication, and
collaborative decision-making among all crew members, regardless of rank or role .
3. A patient refuses transport after consenting to an interfacility transfer. Which legal principle
applies?
A) The patient cannot refuse once transport has begun
B) A competent adult may withdraw consent at any time
C) The sending physician must override the refusal
D) Only a court order can stop transport
,Answer: B
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse or withdraw consent for medical
treatment or transport at any time. The transport team must respect this decision and
document the refusal .
4. EMTALA regulations apply to which transport scenario?
A) Scene response by a ground ambulance
B) Interfacility transfer from a hospital with an emergency department
C) Rotor-wing transport from a routine clinic appointment
D) Non-emergent transport of a stable patient
Answer: B
Rationale: EMTALA applies to any patient who presents to a hospital with an emergency
department. It governs when and how a patient may be transferred to another facility, including
medical screening and stabilization requirements .
5. Which physiologic stressor is UNIQUE to rotor-wing transport compared to ground
transport?
A) Motion sickness
B) Noise exposure
C) Vibration
D) Altitude-related gas expansion
Answer: D
Rationale: Rotor-wing transport involves significant altitude changes (typically 500-1500 feet
AGL). According to Boyle's Law, gas volumes expand at altitude, affecting air-filled spaces
(pneumothorax, endotracheal tube cuffs, bowel gas). This requires specific interventions such as
monitoring ETT cuff pressure .
6. The transport nurse must document:
A) Only arrival time
B) Only patient complaints
C) Patient condition, interventions, and response
D) Equipment purchases
Answer: C
Rationale: Complete documentation supports continuity of care and legal requirements.
Documentation should include the patient's condition, all interventions performed, and the
patient's response to those interventions .
7. Transport nurses should communicate using:
A) Informal conversations
,B) Unstructured reports
C) Standardized handoff communication
D) Written notes only
Answer: C
Rationale: Structured communication improves safety and reduces information loss during
handoffs between sending facility, transport crew, and receiving facility .
8. The safest transport practice regarding patient identification is:
A) Use room number only
B) Ask another patient
C) Verify using approved identifiers
D) Skip identification in emergencies
Answer: C
Rationale: Correct identification prevents serious treatment errors. Approved identifiers
typically include name and date of birth or medical record number .
9. The purpose of pre-transport assessment is to:
A) Delay transport
B) Replace physician orders
C) Identify risks and prepare appropriate interventions
D) Reduce communication
Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment allows planning for patient needs during movement. Identifying
potential risks before departure reduces the likelihood of deterioration during transport .
10. The most important skill for transport nurses is:
A) Speed
B) Memorization
C) Critical thinking and rapid assessment
D) Avoiding communication
Answer: C
Rationale: Transport environments require independent decision-making and assessment skills.
Nurses must be able to rapidly assess and intervene with limited resources .
Domain 2: Resuscitation Principles
, 11. A 30-year-old male is struck by a car. On scene, he is unresponsive with agonal
respirations and no palpable pulse. What is the priority intervention?
A) Establish two large-bore IVs
B) Begin high-quality CPR and apply an AED
C) Rapid sequence intubation
D) C-collar and backboard application
Answer: B
Rationale: Unresponsive + agonal respirations + no pulse = cardiac arrest. High-quality CPR is
the immediate priority. Airway and circulation interventions follow after pulse check and rhythm
analysis .
12. A patient in cardiac arrest is being transported. The cardiac monitor shows ventricular
fibrillation. What is the priority intervention?
A) Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV
B) Perform defibrillation at 200 J biphasic
C) Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV
D) Perform chest compressions
Answer: B
Rationale: For ventricular fibrillation, immediate defibrillation is the priority intervention. Early
defibrillation is the single most important factor in survival from VF cardiac arrest. While
epinephrine and amiodarone are important, they should not delay defibrillation .
13. During transport, a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax deteriorates. What is
the priority intervention?
A) Administer high-flow oxygen
B) Perform needle decompression
C) Request immediate surgical intervention
D) Increase the rate of IV fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate needle
decompression. The needle should be inserted in the second intercostal space at the
midclavicular line. This should be followed by chest tube placement .
14. A patient with anaphylaxis is being transported. Which medication should be
administered first?
A) Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV
B) Epinephrine 0.3-0.5 mg IM
