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NSG 6001 QUIZ 3 LATEST 2026/2027 | PRIMARY
CARE ADULT-GERONTOLOGY | 50 VERIFIED
Q&A | DETAILED RATIONALES | NGN-ALIGNED |
PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION I: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS – Questions 1-8
Q1: Hypertension – White Coat Hypertension
The student is reviewing hypertension. A patient has elevated blood pressure in the clinic but normal
readings at home. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Start antihypertensive medication
B. Recommend ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM)
C. Reassure and recheck in 1 year
D. Order renal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: White coat hypertension is suspected when clinic BP is elevated but home readings are
normal. ABPM is the gold standard to confirm the diagnosis and avoid unnecessary treatment.
Starting medication without confirmation is inappropriate. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Heart Failure – NYHA Class II
The student is reviewing heart failure. A patient reports slight limitation of physical activity;
comfortable at rest, but ordinary activity causes symptoms. What NYHA class is this?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NYHA Class II is slight limitation of physical activity; comfortable at rest, but ordinary
activity results in symptoms. Class I: no limitation. Class III: marked limitation. Class IV: symptoms at
rest. [100% CORRECT]
Q3: Atrial Fibrillation – CHA2DS2-VASc Score Components
The student is reviewing atrial fibrillation. Which component is part of the CHA2DS2-VASc score?
A. Peripheral artery disease
B. Smoking
, 2
C. Obesity
D. Family history
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CHA2DS2-VASc includes Congestive heart failure, Hypertension, Age ≥75 (2 points),
Diabetes, Stroke/TIA (2 points), Vascular disease (including PAD), Age 65-74, Sex category (female).
Smoking, obesity, and family history are not components. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Hyperlipidemia – Statin-Associated Muscle Symptoms
The student is reviewing lipid management. A patient on atorvastatin reports muscle pain without
CK elevation. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Discontinue statin permanently
B. Reduce dose or switch to another statin
C. Add coenzyme Q10
D. Ignore symptoms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For statin-associated muscle symptoms without CK elevation, options include reducing
the dose, switching to a different statin, or using alternate-day dosing. Coenzyme Q10 has limited
evidence. Permanent discontinuation should be avoided if possible. [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Acute Coronary Syndrome – Right Ventricular Infarction
The student is reviewing ACS. A patient with inferior STEMI becomes hypotensive after nitroglycerin.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Right ventricular infarction
B. Left ventricular failure
C. Papillary muscle rupture
D. Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Right ventricular infarction is common with inferior STEMI and causes preload-dependent
hypotension. Nitroglycerin reduces preload and can cause severe hypotension. Management
includes IV fluids. [100% CORRECT]
Q6: Peripheral Artery Disease – Rutherford Classification
The student is reviewing PAD. What does Rutherford category 4 indicate?
A. Mild claudication
B. Moderate claudication
C. Rest pain
D. Minor tissue loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rutherford categories: 0 = asymptomatic; 1 = mild claudication; 2 = moderate
NSG 6001 QUIZ 3 LATEST 2026/2027 | PRIMARY
CARE ADULT-GERONTOLOGY | 50 VERIFIED
Q&A | DETAILED RATIONALES | NGN-ALIGNED |
PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION I: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS – Questions 1-8
Q1: Hypertension – White Coat Hypertension
The student is reviewing hypertension. A patient has elevated blood pressure in the clinic but normal
readings at home. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Start antihypertensive medication
B. Recommend ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM)
C. Reassure and recheck in 1 year
D. Order renal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: White coat hypertension is suspected when clinic BP is elevated but home readings are
normal. ABPM is the gold standard to confirm the diagnosis and avoid unnecessary treatment.
Starting medication without confirmation is inappropriate. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Heart Failure – NYHA Class II
The student is reviewing heart failure. A patient reports slight limitation of physical activity;
comfortable at rest, but ordinary activity causes symptoms. What NYHA class is this?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NYHA Class II is slight limitation of physical activity; comfortable at rest, but ordinary
activity results in symptoms. Class I: no limitation. Class III: marked limitation. Class IV: symptoms at
rest. [100% CORRECT]
Q3: Atrial Fibrillation – CHA2DS2-VASc Score Components
The student is reviewing atrial fibrillation. Which component is part of the CHA2DS2-VASc score?
A. Peripheral artery disease
B. Smoking
, 2
C. Obesity
D. Family history
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CHA2DS2-VASc includes Congestive heart failure, Hypertension, Age ≥75 (2 points),
Diabetes, Stroke/TIA (2 points), Vascular disease (including PAD), Age 65-74, Sex category (female).
Smoking, obesity, and family history are not components. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Hyperlipidemia – Statin-Associated Muscle Symptoms
The student is reviewing lipid management. A patient on atorvastatin reports muscle pain without
CK elevation. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Discontinue statin permanently
B. Reduce dose or switch to another statin
C. Add coenzyme Q10
D. Ignore symptoms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For statin-associated muscle symptoms without CK elevation, options include reducing
the dose, switching to a different statin, or using alternate-day dosing. Coenzyme Q10 has limited
evidence. Permanent discontinuation should be avoided if possible. [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Acute Coronary Syndrome – Right Ventricular Infarction
The student is reviewing ACS. A patient with inferior STEMI becomes hypotensive after nitroglycerin.
What is the most likely cause?
A. Right ventricular infarction
B. Left ventricular failure
C. Papillary muscle rupture
D. Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Right ventricular infarction is common with inferior STEMI and causes preload-dependent
hypotension. Nitroglycerin reduces preload and can cause severe hypotension. Management
includes IV fluids. [100% CORRECT]
Q6: Peripheral Artery Disease – Rutherford Classification
The student is reviewing PAD. What does Rutherford category 4 indicate?
A. Mild claudication
B. Moderate claudication
C. Rest pain
D. Minor tissue loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rutherford categories: 0 = asymptomatic; 1 = mild claudication; 2 = moderate
