RN Comprehensive Predictor – Assessment Technologies
Institute (ATI) – 2026/2027
1. Management of Care, Safety, Ethics, Delegation
1. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) COPD client with O2 sat 88% on 2 L NC
B) Post-op day 1 with BP 100/60
C) Chronic pain client requesting refill
D) Diabetes client with fasting glucose 110
Correct: A
Rationale: Hypoxemia is an immediate airway/breathing threat; assess and
intervene first.
2. SATA: A client has C. difficile. Which actions are correct?
A) Soap-and-water hand hygiene
B) Alcohol-based hand rub
C) Gown and gloves
D) Private room
E) N95 mask required
Correct: A, C, D
Rationale: C. diff requires contact precautions; soap and water removes
spores; mask is not required.
3. Which task can the RN delegate to a UAP?
A) Administer oral meds
B) Assess lung sounds
C) Obtain vital signs on a stable client
D) Teach insulin injection
Correct: C
Rationale: Vital signs on stable clients are within UAP scope; assessment,
teaching, and meds are not.
4. A client asks about a living will. Best response?
A) “It tells providers who can make decisions.”
B) “It documents your wishes for end-of-life care.”
,C) “It is the same as a DNR order.”
D) “It must be notarized to be valid.”
Correct: B
Rationale: A living will states end-of-life treatment wishes; it is not the same
as a DNR or proxy.
5. A client refuses chemotherapy. Which ethical principle is honored?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Justice
D) Fidelity
Correct: A
Rationale: Autonomy respects the client’s right to make self-determined
decisions.
6. SATA: Which are client rights?
A) Right to refuse treatment
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to demand unnecessary meds
D) Right to informed consent
E) Right to access records
Correct: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Clients may refuse, have privacy, consent, and access records; they
cannot demand unnecessary treatment.
7. Nurse suspects child abuse. First action?
A) Confront the parent
B) Report to authorities per state law
C) Ignore if no proof
D) Call the insurance company
Correct: B
Rationale: Suspected abuse is a mandatory report; the nurse does not
investigate or confront.
8. Disaster triage: Which client is tagged red?
A) Walking wounded
,B) Respiratory rate 8 after repositioning
C) Deceased client
D) Minor ankle fracture
Correct: B
Rationale: Red = immediate/life-threatening but salvageable;
airway/breathing compromise is red.
9. Nurse discusses a client in an elevator. This is:
A) HIPAA violation
B) Allowed if no name used
C) Allowed if only staff present
D) Allowed if family hears
Correct: A
Rationale: Any discussion that can identify a client in a public area violates
HIPAA.
10. Who can sign informed consent?
A) 16-year-old emancipated minor
B) Confused older adult
C) Minor with parent present
D) Unconscious client with no surrogate
Correct: A
Rationale: Emancipated minors may consent; confused/unconscious clients
cannot unless a surrogate is available.
11. SATA: What should be included in handoff report?
A) Current vitals
B) Allergies
C) Insurance information
D) Pending tests
E) Code status
Correct: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Handoff focuses on clinical status, safety, pending work, and code
status—not billing.
, 12. Which client should be assigned to an LPN?
A) Unstable chest pain
B) Stable post-op with dressing change
C) New admission needing complex teaching
D) Blood transfusion first 15 minutes
Correct: B
Rationale: Stable, predictable tasks are appropriate for LPN;
unstable/complex clients need RN.
13. After a client fall, the nurse should:
A) Document “incident report filed” in the chart
B) Complete an incident report
C) Blame the UAP
D) Omit the fall from the chart
Correct: B
Rationale: Complete an incident report per policy; do not document the
report itself in the chart.
14. SATA: RACE fire response includes:
A) Rescue
B) Alarm
C) Contain
D) Extinguish
E) Run
Correct: A, B, C, D
Rationale: RACE = Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate.
15. Client with airborne infection. Nurse should wear:
A) N95 respirator
B) Surgical mask
C) Gown only
D) Gloves only
Correct: A
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 or higher respirator.
Institute (ATI) – 2026/2027
1. Management of Care, Safety, Ethics, Delegation
1. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) COPD client with O2 sat 88% on 2 L NC
B) Post-op day 1 with BP 100/60
C) Chronic pain client requesting refill
D) Diabetes client with fasting glucose 110
Correct: A
Rationale: Hypoxemia is an immediate airway/breathing threat; assess and
intervene first.
2. SATA: A client has C. difficile. Which actions are correct?
A) Soap-and-water hand hygiene
B) Alcohol-based hand rub
C) Gown and gloves
D) Private room
E) N95 mask required
Correct: A, C, D
Rationale: C. diff requires contact precautions; soap and water removes
spores; mask is not required.
3. Which task can the RN delegate to a UAP?
A) Administer oral meds
B) Assess lung sounds
C) Obtain vital signs on a stable client
D) Teach insulin injection
Correct: C
Rationale: Vital signs on stable clients are within UAP scope; assessment,
teaching, and meds are not.
4. A client asks about a living will. Best response?
A) “It tells providers who can make decisions.”
B) “It documents your wishes for end-of-life care.”
,C) “It is the same as a DNR order.”
D) “It must be notarized to be valid.”
Correct: B
Rationale: A living will states end-of-life treatment wishes; it is not the same
as a DNR or proxy.
5. A client refuses chemotherapy. Which ethical principle is honored?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Justice
D) Fidelity
Correct: A
Rationale: Autonomy respects the client’s right to make self-determined
decisions.
6. SATA: Which are client rights?
A) Right to refuse treatment
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to demand unnecessary meds
D) Right to informed consent
E) Right to access records
Correct: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Clients may refuse, have privacy, consent, and access records; they
cannot demand unnecessary treatment.
7. Nurse suspects child abuse. First action?
A) Confront the parent
B) Report to authorities per state law
C) Ignore if no proof
D) Call the insurance company
Correct: B
Rationale: Suspected abuse is a mandatory report; the nurse does not
investigate or confront.
8. Disaster triage: Which client is tagged red?
A) Walking wounded
,B) Respiratory rate 8 after repositioning
C) Deceased client
D) Minor ankle fracture
Correct: B
Rationale: Red = immediate/life-threatening but salvageable;
airway/breathing compromise is red.
9. Nurse discusses a client in an elevator. This is:
A) HIPAA violation
B) Allowed if no name used
C) Allowed if only staff present
D) Allowed if family hears
Correct: A
Rationale: Any discussion that can identify a client in a public area violates
HIPAA.
10. Who can sign informed consent?
A) 16-year-old emancipated minor
B) Confused older adult
C) Minor with parent present
D) Unconscious client with no surrogate
Correct: A
Rationale: Emancipated minors may consent; confused/unconscious clients
cannot unless a surrogate is available.
11. SATA: What should be included in handoff report?
A) Current vitals
B) Allergies
C) Insurance information
D) Pending tests
E) Code status
Correct: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Handoff focuses on clinical status, safety, pending work, and code
status—not billing.
, 12. Which client should be assigned to an LPN?
A) Unstable chest pain
B) Stable post-op with dressing change
C) New admission needing complex teaching
D) Blood transfusion first 15 minutes
Correct: B
Rationale: Stable, predictable tasks are appropriate for LPN;
unstable/complex clients need RN.
13. After a client fall, the nurse should:
A) Document “incident report filed” in the chart
B) Complete an incident report
C) Blame the UAP
D) Omit the fall from the chart
Correct: B
Rationale: Complete an incident report per policy; do not document the
report itself in the chart.
14. SATA: RACE fire response includes:
A) Rescue
B) Alarm
C) Contain
D) Extinguish
E) Run
Correct: A, B, C, D
Rationale: RACE = Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate.
15. Client with airborne infection. Nurse should wear:
A) N95 respirator
B) Surgical mask
C) Gown only
D) Gloves only
Correct: A
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 or higher respirator.
