PN Capstone Comprehensive
Predictor Exam 2026/2027 |
Questions and Answers
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following an
appendectomy. The client reports pain at the incision site. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
• A. Administer the prescribed analgesic.
• B. Assess the client's pain level using a 0-10 scale.
• C. Reposition the client for comfort.
• D. Document the client's complaint of pain.
Rationale: The nursing process begins with assessment. The nurse must first
assess the client's pain level, including its location, quality, and intensity, before
implementing any interventions. Administering medication or repositioning
without a full assessment is premature. Documentation occurs after the
assessment and intervention.
2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
• A. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
• B. "I will take ibuprofen for headaches."
• C. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
• D. "I will double my dose if I miss one."
, Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding.
Using a soft toothbrush helps prevent bleeding gums. Clients should maintain a
consistent intake of vitamin K (green leafy vegetables), not increase it. Ibuprofen
can increase bleeding risk and should be avoided. Clients should never double up
on a missed dose of warfarin.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
• A. Fundal height of 32 cm.
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg.
• C. Facial swelling and a severe headache.
• D. Urinary frequency.
Rationale: Facial swelling and a severe headache are classic signs of
preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. These findings must
be reported immediately. A fundal height of 32 cm at 32 weeks is an expected
finding. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is within normal limits. Urinary
frequency is a common discomfort of pregnancy due to pressure on the bladder.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which of the following oxygen delivery methods should the nurse
anticipate using for this client?
• A. Simple face mask at 8 L/min.
• B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
• C. Non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min.
• D. Venturi mask at 6 L/min.
Rationale: Clients with COPD have a hypoxic drive to breathe. High levels of
oxygen can suppress this drive and lead to respiratory depression. Therefore, low-
flow oxygen, typically 1-2 L/min via nasal cannula, is the safest initial method.
,Higher flow rates and more concentrated oxygen delivery systems should be used
with caution.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to administering the
medication?
• A. Heart rate of 88/min.
• B. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L.
• C. Heart rate of 52/min.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. A heart rate
below 60/min in an adult is a common reason to hold the medication and notify
the provider. A heart rate of 88/min is within normal limits. A potassium level of
4.2 mEq/L is normal. Blood pressure is not a direct contraindication for
administering digoxin.
6. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is scheduled for a
colonoscopy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
• A. "You will need to drink a clear liquid diet for 24 hours before the
procedure."
• B. "You should stop taking your blood pressure medication the morning of
the procedure."
• C. "You will be able to drive yourself home after the procedure."
• D. "You should expect to have a normal bowel movement immediately after
the procedure."
Rationale: A clear liquid diet is required for 24-48 hours before a colonoscopy
to ensure the bowel is clean for adequate visualization. Clients should take their
regular medications, especially for blood pressure, with a sip of water. Clients are
, sedated for the procedure and cannot drive themselves home. Bowel movements
will be liquid or absent immediately after the procedure due to the prep.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. The
client asks the nurse, "What is the difference between type 1 and type 2
diabetes?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
• A. "Type 1 diabetes is caused by a lack of insulin production, while type 2 is
caused by insulin resistance."
• B. "Type 1 diabetes is managed with oral medications, while type 2 requires
insulin."
• C. "Type 1 diabetes is more common in older adults, while type 2 is more
common in children."
• D. "Type 1 diabetes is caused by eating too much sugar, while type 2 is
genetic."
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the pancreas
does not produce insulin. Type 2 diabetes is characterized by the body's cells
becoming resistant to insulin. Type 1 requires insulin therapy. Type 1 is typically
diagnosed in children and young adults, while type 2 is more common in adults.
Neither type is caused simply by eating too much sugar.
8. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
• A. Lochia rubra.
• B. Fundus firm at the umbilicus.
• C. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes.
• D. Afterpains during breastfeeding.
Rationale: A perineal pad that is saturated in 15 minutes indicates excessive
bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention. Lochia rubra is
the expected lochia in the first 1-3 days postpartum. A firm fundus at the
Predictor Exam 2026/2027 |
Questions and Answers
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following an
appendectomy. The client reports pain at the incision site. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
• A. Administer the prescribed analgesic.
• B. Assess the client's pain level using a 0-10 scale.
• C. Reposition the client for comfort.
• D. Document the client's complaint of pain.
Rationale: The nursing process begins with assessment. The nurse must first
assess the client's pain level, including its location, quality, and intensity, before
implementing any interventions. Administering medication or repositioning
without a full assessment is premature. Documentation occurs after the
assessment and intervention.
2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
• A. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
• B. "I will take ibuprofen for headaches."
• C. "I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth."
• D. "I will double my dose if I miss one."
, Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding.
Using a soft toothbrush helps prevent bleeding gums. Clients should maintain a
consistent intake of vitamin K (green leafy vegetables), not increase it. Ibuprofen
can increase bleeding risk and should be avoided. Clients should never double up
on a missed dose of warfarin.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
• A. Fundal height of 32 cm.
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg.
• C. Facial swelling and a severe headache.
• D. Urinary frequency.
Rationale: Facial swelling and a severe headache are classic signs of
preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. These findings must
be reported immediately. A fundal height of 32 cm at 32 weeks is an expected
finding. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is within normal limits. Urinary
frequency is a common discomfort of pregnancy due to pressure on the bladder.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which of the following oxygen delivery methods should the nurse
anticipate using for this client?
• A. Simple face mask at 8 L/min.
• B. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
• C. Non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min.
• D. Venturi mask at 6 L/min.
Rationale: Clients with COPD have a hypoxic drive to breathe. High levels of
oxygen can suppress this drive and lead to respiratory depression. Therefore, low-
flow oxygen, typically 1-2 L/min via nasal cannula, is the safest initial method.
,Higher flow rates and more concentrated oxygen delivery systems should be used
with caution.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to administering the
medication?
• A. Heart rate of 88/min.
• B. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L.
• C. Heart rate of 52/min.
• D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. A heart rate
below 60/min in an adult is a common reason to hold the medication and notify
the provider. A heart rate of 88/min is within normal limits. A potassium level of
4.2 mEq/L is normal. Blood pressure is not a direct contraindication for
administering digoxin.
6. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is scheduled for a
colonoscopy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
• A. "You will need to drink a clear liquid diet for 24 hours before the
procedure."
• B. "You should stop taking your blood pressure medication the morning of
the procedure."
• C. "You will be able to drive yourself home after the procedure."
• D. "You should expect to have a normal bowel movement immediately after
the procedure."
Rationale: A clear liquid diet is required for 24-48 hours before a colonoscopy
to ensure the bowel is clean for adequate visualization. Clients should take their
regular medications, especially for blood pressure, with a sip of water. Clients are
, sedated for the procedure and cannot drive themselves home. Bowel movements
will be liquid or absent immediately after the procedure due to the prep.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. The
client asks the nurse, "What is the difference between type 1 and type 2
diabetes?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
• A. "Type 1 diabetes is caused by a lack of insulin production, while type 2 is
caused by insulin resistance."
• B. "Type 1 diabetes is managed with oral medications, while type 2 requires
insulin."
• C. "Type 1 diabetes is more common in older adults, while type 2 is more
common in children."
• D. "Type 1 diabetes is caused by eating too much sugar, while type 2 is
genetic."
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the pancreas
does not produce insulin. Type 2 diabetes is characterized by the body's cells
becoming resistant to insulin. Type 1 requires insulin therapy. Type 1 is typically
diagnosed in children and young adults, while type 2 is more common in adults.
Neither type is caused simply by eating too much sugar.
8. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
• A. Lochia rubra.
• B. Fundus firm at the umbilicus.
• C. Saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes.
• D. Afterpains during breastfeeding.
Rationale: A perineal pad that is saturated in 15 minutes indicates excessive
bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention. Lochia rubra is
the expected lochia in the first 1-3 days postpartum. A firm fundus at the
