• ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
WGU D116 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL
EXAM 1 OBJECTIVE ASSEMENT & PRE-ASSESMENT
700 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE
THIS YEAR - JUST RELEASED
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining
of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse
should provide to this client?
A) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms.
B) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia, a cause of
cramping.
P 1
, • ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
C) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a serious
side effect.
D) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness of the drug. -
Correct Answer :C.
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of
Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances
such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg pain in the client
receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-
cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but
diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the optimum time for the
nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered.
B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - Correct Answer :B.
Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just before the next dose is given
(B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high dosages of aspirin for arthritis?
A) Loperamide (Imodium).
B) Probanthine (Propantheline).
C) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol).
D) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine (Lomotil). - Correct Answer :C.
Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) contains a subsalicylate that increases the potential for salicylate toxicity
when used concurrently with aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, another salicylate preparation). (A, B, and D) do not
pose the degree of risk of drug interaction with aspirin as Pepto Bismol would.
P 2
, • ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old client with arthritis. The
client reports that she can't hear the nurse's questions because her ears are ringing. What action should the
nurse implement?
A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam. - Correct Answer :C.
Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider should be notified immediately (C), and the
medication discontinued. (A and D) are not needed, and (B) is inaccurate.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which prescription should
the nurse prepare to administer to this client
A. Dopamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Diphenhydramine - Correct Answer :C.
Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase cardiac automaticity in cardiac
arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor used to treat clients with shock.
Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the treatment of nasal congestion.
Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions and
motion sickness.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with osteoarthritis of the hands.
The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be effective after three weeks. Which is the best
response for the nurse to provide?
A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness.
B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief. - Correct Answer :C.
P 3
, • ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is the best response. Naproxen
is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B).
Corticosteroids are not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for the nurse
to teach this client?
A) Use a reliable form of birth control.
B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - Correct Answer :A.
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis,
so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug
therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans
for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy
occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during
pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness
while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. –
Correct Answer :A.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so
the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The
duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in
the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the
base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to
avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
P 4
PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
WGU D116 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL
EXAM 1 OBJECTIVE ASSEMENT & PRE-ASSESMENT
700 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE
THIS YEAR - JUST RELEASED
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining
of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse
should provide to this client?
A) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms.
B) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia, a cause of
cramping.
P 1
, • ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
C) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a serious
side effect.
D) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness of the drug. -
Correct Answer :C.
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of
Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances
such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg pain in the client
receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-
cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but
diet is not related to the leg pain symptom.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the optimum time for the
nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered.
B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - Correct Answer :B.
Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just before the next dose is given
(B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high dosages of aspirin for arthritis?
A) Loperamide (Imodium).
B) Probanthine (Propantheline).
C) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol).
D) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine (Lomotil). - Correct Answer :C.
Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) contains a subsalicylate that increases the potential for salicylate toxicity
when used concurrently with aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, another salicylate preparation). (A, B, and D) do not
pose the degree of risk of drug interaction with aspirin as Pepto Bismol would.
P 2
, • ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old client with arthritis. The
client reports that she can't hear the nurse's questions because her ears are ringing. What action should the
nurse implement?
A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam. - Correct Answer :C.
Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider should be notified immediately (C), and the
medication discontinued. (A and D) are not needed, and (B) is inaccurate.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which prescription should
the nurse prepare to administer to this client
A. Dopamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Diphenhydramine - Correct Answer :C.
Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase cardiac automaticity in cardiac
arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a vasopressor used to treat clients with shock.
Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction and is used in the treatment of nasal congestion.
Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine decongestant used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions and
motion sickness.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with osteoarthritis of the hands.
The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be effective after three weeks. Which is the best
response for the nurse to provide?
A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness.
B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief. - Correct Answer :C.
P 3
, • ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY 09/18/2026
EXAM
Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is the best response. Naproxen
is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B).
Corticosteroids are not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for the nurse
to teach this client?
A) Use a reliable form of birth control.
B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - Correct Answer :A.
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for teratogenesis,
so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable form of birth control (A) during drug
therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans
for pregnancy with the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy
occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during
pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness
while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. –
Correct Answer :A.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so
the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The
duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in
the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the
base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to
avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
P 4
