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NSG 530 ACTUAL EXAM 2026 3/2027 | Advanced Pathophysiology – Wilkes University | Exams 1-4 Comprehensive Bank | Verified Q&A with Detailed Rationales | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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NSG 530 ACTUAL EXAM 2026 3/2027 | Advanced Pathophysiology – Wilkes University | Exams 1-4 Comprehensive Bank | Verified Q&A with Detailed Rationales | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded • NSG 530 ACTUAL EXAM 09/16/2026 P 2 A woman who has developed vulvovaginal candidiasis will likely go to her health care provider complaining of: Select all that apply. A) Redness B) Edema C) Frothy, foul-smelling discharge D) Painful urination E) Pustules on labia – Correct Answer :Ans: A, B, D Feedback: Women with vulvovaginal candidiasis commonly complain of vulvovaginal pruritus accompanied by irritation, erythema, swelling, dysuria, and dyspareunia. The characteristic discharge, when present, is usually thick, white, and odorless. Trichomoniasis manifestations include presentation with copious, frothy, malodorous green or yellow discharge. The most prevalent vaginal infection to be spread through sexual contact is: A) Candidiasis B) Trichomoniasis C) Vulvovaginitis D)Bacterial vaginosis - Correct Answer :Ans: B Feedback: Candidiasis is a yeast infection with a white cheesy discharge that causes vulvovaginitis. Bacterial vaginosis is a nonspecific type of infection that produces a characteristic fishy-smelling discharge, the result of an imbalance of the normal vaginal flora. These infections are not normally spread by sexual contact. Trichomoniasis is usually spread through sexual contact. A client presents to the GYN clinic complaining of large amounts of frothy yellow-green discharge that smells very foul. Immediately, the health care provider is thinking this client most likely has: A) Candidiasis B) Trichomoniasis

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• NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026

EXAM

NSG 530 ACTUAL EXAM 2026 3/2027 | Advanced
Pathophysiology – Wilkes University | Exams 1-4
Comprehensive Bank | Verified Q&A with Detailed
Rationales | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded




P 1

, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026

EXAM
A woman who has developed vulvovaginal candidiasis will likely go to her health care provider complaining of:
Select all that apply.

A) Redness

B) Edema

C) Frothy, foul-smelling discharge

D) Painful urination

E) Pustules on labia –



Correct Answer :Ans: A, B, D

Feedback:

Women with vulvovaginal candidiasis commonly complain of vulvovaginal pruritus accompanied by irritation,
erythema, swelling, dysuria, and dyspareunia. The characteristic discharge, when present, is usually thick, white,
and odorless. Trichomoniasis manifestations include presentation with copious, frothy, malodorous green or
yellow discharge.



The most prevalent vaginal infection to be spread through sexual contact is:

A) Candidiasis

B) Trichomoniasis

C) Vulvovaginitis

D)Bacterial vaginosis - Correct Answer :Ans: B

Feedback:

Candidiasis is a yeast infection with a white cheesy discharge that causes vulvovaginitis. Bacterial vaginosis is a
nonspecific type of infection that produces a characteristic fishy-smelling discharge, the result of an imbalance of
the normal vaginal flora. These infections are not normally spread by sexual contact. Trichomoniasis is usually
spread through sexual contact.



A client presents to the GYN clinic complaining of large amounts of frothy yellow-green discharge that smells
very foul. Immediately, the health care provider is thinking this client most likely has:

A) Candidiasis

B) Trichomoniasis



P 2

, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026

EXAM
C) Bacterial vaginosis

D) Chlamydial infection - Correct Answer :Ans: B

Feedback:

Trichomoniasis causes a copious, frothy, malodorous, green or yellow discharge. The characteristic vaginal
discharge of candidiasis, when present, is usually odorless, thick, and cheesy. The predominant symptom of
bacterial vaginosis is a thin, grayish white discharge that has a foul, fishy odor. Chlamydial STD may be
asymptomatic, but most women have mucopurulent drainage or hypertrophic cervical changes on examination.



While explaining to a group of nursing students the difference between benign and malignant bone tumors, the
instructor will emphasize that a benign tumor: Select all that apply.

A) Is associated with constant, deep aching pain that does not go away with rest

B) May be asymptomatic and detected incidentally

C) Is a painful mass that is detected on a long bone and seems to be increasing in size

D) May cause the client to have a pathological fracture - Correct Answer :Ans: B, D

Feedback:

There are three major manifestations of bone tumors: pain, presence of a mass, and impairment of function.
Although benign tumors are frequently asymptomatic and are detected as an incidental finding, malignant
tumors are associated with constant, deep aching pain that does not go away with rest and is present at night. A
mass or hard lump may be the first sign of a bone tumor. A malignant tumor is suspected when a painful mass
exists that is enlarging or eroding the cortex of the bone. Benign and malignant tumors may cause the bone to
erode to the point where it cannot withstand the strain of ordinary use. A sudden increase in pain followed by
trivial trauma that is preceded by a history of mild, dull aching pain is suggestive of a pathologic fracture.



A client presents to a health care clinic reporting sudden onset of deep, localized pain and swelling in her
proximal femur. The client is currently undergoing diagnostic workup for suspected lung cancer. The nurse
suspects the client may have developed which of the following neoplasms of the skeletal system?

A) Exostosis

B) Osteochondroma

C) Endochondroma

D) Osteosarcoma - Correct Answer :Ans: D

Feedback:




P 3

, • NSG 530 ACTUAL 09/16/2026

EXAM
Osteosarcoma is an aggressive and highly malignant bone tumor that normally requires surgery and
chemotherapy. Exostosis and osteochondroma are synonymous terms for types of benign neoplasms that often
require no treatment. Endochondroma is also benign and may self-resolve.



Which of the following lab results may be associated with metastatic bone disease? Select all that apply.

A) Elevated alkaline phosphatase

B) Decreased creatinine levels

C) High serum calcium levels

D) Lower serum phosphate levels - Correct Answer :Ans: A, C

Feedback:

Although any cancer can ultimately involve the skeleton, tumors that frequently spread to the skeletal system
are those of the breast, lung, prostate, kidney, and thyroid. Serum levels of alkaline phosphatase and calcium
often are elevated in persons with metastatic bone disease. Creatinine levels are not affected by this diagnosis.



A client with a diagnosis of small cell lung carcinoma has developed bone metastases, a finding that has
prompted a series of new interventions. What are the primary goals of the treatment regimen for this client's
bone cancer?

A) Prevention of brain metastasis and early identification of osteonecrosis

B) Promotion of bone remodeling at tumor sites through calcium and vitamin D supplements

C) Prevention of pathologic fractures and maximization of function

D) Pain management and prevention of osteomyelitis - Correct Answer :Ans: C

Feedback:

The primary goals in treatment of metastatic bone disease are to prevent pathologic fractures and promote
survival with maximum functioning, allowing the person to maintain as much mobility and pain control as
possible. Osteonecrosis, osteomyelitis, and brain metastasis are not typical sequelae of bone metastasis. Tumor
sites do not normally undergo remodeling, and dietary supplements alone would not foster this process.



A couple has just learned that their newborn infant has been diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta, and they
have responded by seeking out as much information as possible about their child's diagnosis. What should the
clinician teach the couple about their child's health problem?

A) "This is something that your child may have inherited from one or both of you."

B) "This might have been caused by something you were exposed to during the early part of your pregnancy."

P 4

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