VATI PN PHARMACOLOGY ASSESSMENT EXAM
2026-2027 | COMPLETE BUNDLE OF MIDTERM /
PAST PAPERS & FINAL EXAMS | VERIFIED Q&A WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES | A+ GRADED | PASS
GUARANTEED | NEWEST!!!!!!!!!!!!!
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has myasthenia gravis and is
experiencing a cholinergic crisis. Which of the following medications should the nurse
expect the RN to administer?
A) Bethanechol
B) Propranolol
C) Atropine
D) Epinephrine
Rationale: A cholinergic crisis occurs due to excessive acetylcholine, often from too much
anticholinesterase medication. Atropine, an anticholinergic, is the antidote. Bethanechol
would worsen the crisis. Propranolol and epinephrine are not indicated.
A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and a new prescription for
lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor for
potential adverse effects?
A) Prothrombin Time
B) Hematocrit
C) Sodium
D) Potassium
Rationale: Lithium is a salt; sodium and lithium compete for renal reabsorption. Low
sodium levels can increase lithium retention and toxicity. Monitoring sodium is essential.
Prothrombin time, hematocrit, and potassium are not directly related to lithium toxicity.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a prescription for rosuvastatin to
treat high cholesterol levels. For which of the following adverse effects should the
nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider immediately?
A) Muscle weakness
B) Headache
,C) Abdominal pain
D) Insomnia
Rationale: Muscle weakness can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a rare but serious adverse
effect of statins. Headache, abdominal pain, and insomnia are not immediate concerns.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly licensed nurse regarding safe procedures
for medication administration. Which of the following statements by the newly
licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will identify the client by verifying the client's name using the room number."
B) "I can administer antibiotics 1 hour before the scheduled time."
C) "I will check the label on the client's medication three times before administering it."
D) "I will leave the client's medication at the client's bedside."
Rationale: Checking the medication label three times is a standard safety practice. Room
numbers are not acceptable identifiers. Antibiotics are not time-critical in that manner.
Leaving medication at the bedside is unsafe.
A nurse is preparing to administer Lactated Ringer's solution 350 mL to infuse over 1
hr. The drop factor of the tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV
infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)
A) 58 gtt/min
B) 60 gtt/min
C) 55 gtt/min
D) 62 gtt/min
Rationale: 350 mL ÷ 60 min × 10 gtt/mL = 58.33, rounded to 58 gtt/min.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving morphine to relieve
postoperative pain. The client's respiratory rate is 9/min. The nurse should notify the
provider and expect a stat prescription for which of the following medications?
A) Naloxone
B) Glucagon
C) Flumazenil
D) Protamine
Rationale: Naloxone is the opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory depression from
morphine. Glucagon is for hypoglycemia, flumazenil for benzodiazepine overdose, and
protamine for heparin overdose.
,A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for insulin. The
client is taking propranolol. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for which of
the following findings as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?
A) Tachycardia
B) Difficulty breathing
C) Sleep disturbance
D) Hunger
Rationale: Propranolol masks tachycardia, a common hypoglycemia sign. Hunger is a
manifestation not masked by beta-blockers. Difficulty breathing and sleep disturbance are
not typical hypoglycemia signs.
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who is taking furosemide. Which of
the following foods should the nurse recommend as the best source of potassium?
A) 1 cup baked potatoes
B) 1 cup fresh blueberries
C) 1 cup fresh watermelon
D) 1 cup raw chopped cabbage
Rationale: Baked potatoes are high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that
depletes potassium. Blueberries, watermelon, and cabbage are lower in potassium.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has been prescribed isoniazid. Which
of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should expect my urine to turn reddish in color."
B) "I will have a skin test to determine when I am no longer contagious."
C) "I should notify my provider if I develop numbness in my feet."
D) "I should expect to take this medication for 6 weeks."
Rationale: Numbness in the feet indicates peripheral neuropathy, a side effect of isoniazid
due to vitamin B6 depletion. Reddish urine is rifampin. Skin testing does not determine
contagiousness. Isoniazid is taken for months, not 6 weeks.
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has oral benzodiazepine toxicity. The
client has an IV infusing and is nonresponsive. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse anticipate first?
A) Administering norepinephrine via continuous IV infusion
B) Administering IV flumazenil
, C) Performing gastric lavage
D) Preparing the client for mechanical ventilation
Rationale: Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. Norepinephrine is for
hypotension, gastric lavage is not first-line, and mechanical ventilation is supportive but
not the first intervention.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has chronic stable angina and a
prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "Replace your bottle of tablets every 3 months for best effectiveness."
B) "Place one tablet under the tongue 30 minutes before exercise to prevent angina chest
pain."
C) "Call 911 if chest pain is not relieved within 20 minutes of taking nitroglycerin."
D) "As soon as chest pain occurs, place one tablet under the tongue."
Rationale: Nitroglycerin should be taken immediately when chest pain occurs. Tablets
should be replaced every 6 months, not 3. Taking before exercise is for prevention but not
the primary instruction. Calling 911 after 5 minutes, not 20, is recommended.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is scheduled to receive an initial dose of
tobramycin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A) The client reports taking acetaminophen for pain.
B) The client's potassium level is 4.1 mEq/L.
C) The client has an allergy to sulfonamides.
D) The client's creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dL.
Rationale: Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside, nephrotoxic. Elevated creatinine indicates
renal impairment and risk for toxicity. Acetaminophen, normal potassium, and
sulfonamide allergy are not contraindications.
A nurse is administering ear drops into an adult client's right ear. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A) Straighten the ear canal by pulling the auricle down and back.
B) Assist the client into Fowler's position.
C) Place a cotton ball in the ear canal for 30 min after instilling the drops.
D) Instill drops holding the dropper 1 cm (0.4 in.) above the ear canal.
2026-2027 | COMPLETE BUNDLE OF MIDTERM /
PAST PAPERS & FINAL EXAMS | VERIFIED Q&A WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES | A+ GRADED | PASS
GUARANTEED | NEWEST!!!!!!!!!!!!!
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has myasthenia gravis and is
experiencing a cholinergic crisis. Which of the following medications should the nurse
expect the RN to administer?
A) Bethanechol
B) Propranolol
C) Atropine
D) Epinephrine
Rationale: A cholinergic crisis occurs due to excessive acetylcholine, often from too much
anticholinesterase medication. Atropine, an anticholinergic, is the antidote. Bethanechol
would worsen the crisis. Propranolol and epinephrine are not indicated.
A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and a new prescription for
lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor for
potential adverse effects?
A) Prothrombin Time
B) Hematocrit
C) Sodium
D) Potassium
Rationale: Lithium is a salt; sodium and lithium compete for renal reabsorption. Low
sodium levels can increase lithium retention and toxicity. Monitoring sodium is essential.
Prothrombin time, hematocrit, and potassium are not directly related to lithium toxicity.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a prescription for rosuvastatin to
treat high cholesterol levels. For which of the following adverse effects should the
nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider immediately?
A) Muscle weakness
B) Headache
,C) Abdominal pain
D) Insomnia
Rationale: Muscle weakness can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a rare but serious adverse
effect of statins. Headache, abdominal pain, and insomnia are not immediate concerns.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly licensed nurse regarding safe procedures
for medication administration. Which of the following statements by the newly
licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will identify the client by verifying the client's name using the room number."
B) "I can administer antibiotics 1 hour before the scheduled time."
C) "I will check the label on the client's medication three times before administering it."
D) "I will leave the client's medication at the client's bedside."
Rationale: Checking the medication label three times is a standard safety practice. Room
numbers are not acceptable identifiers. Antibiotics are not time-critical in that manner.
Leaving medication at the bedside is unsafe.
A nurse is preparing to administer Lactated Ringer's solution 350 mL to infuse over 1
hr. The drop factor of the tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV
infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)
A) 58 gtt/min
B) 60 gtt/min
C) 55 gtt/min
D) 62 gtt/min
Rationale: 350 mL ÷ 60 min × 10 gtt/mL = 58.33, rounded to 58 gtt/min.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving morphine to relieve
postoperative pain. The client's respiratory rate is 9/min. The nurse should notify the
provider and expect a stat prescription for which of the following medications?
A) Naloxone
B) Glucagon
C) Flumazenil
D) Protamine
Rationale: Naloxone is the opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory depression from
morphine. Glucagon is for hypoglycemia, flumazenil for benzodiazepine overdose, and
protamine for heparin overdose.
,A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for insulin. The
client is taking propranolol. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for which of
the following findings as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?
A) Tachycardia
B) Difficulty breathing
C) Sleep disturbance
D) Hunger
Rationale: Propranolol masks tachycardia, a common hypoglycemia sign. Hunger is a
manifestation not masked by beta-blockers. Difficulty breathing and sleep disturbance are
not typical hypoglycemia signs.
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who is taking furosemide. Which of
the following foods should the nurse recommend as the best source of potassium?
A) 1 cup baked potatoes
B) 1 cup fresh blueberries
C) 1 cup fresh watermelon
D) 1 cup raw chopped cabbage
Rationale: Baked potatoes are high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that
depletes potassium. Blueberries, watermelon, and cabbage are lower in potassium.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has been prescribed isoniazid. Which
of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should expect my urine to turn reddish in color."
B) "I will have a skin test to determine when I am no longer contagious."
C) "I should notify my provider if I develop numbness in my feet."
D) "I should expect to take this medication for 6 weeks."
Rationale: Numbness in the feet indicates peripheral neuropathy, a side effect of isoniazid
due to vitamin B6 depletion. Reddish urine is rifampin. Skin testing does not determine
contagiousness. Isoniazid is taken for months, not 6 weeks.
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has oral benzodiazepine toxicity. The
client has an IV infusing and is nonresponsive. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse anticipate first?
A) Administering norepinephrine via continuous IV infusion
B) Administering IV flumazenil
, C) Performing gastric lavage
D) Preparing the client for mechanical ventilation
Rationale: Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. Norepinephrine is for
hypotension, gastric lavage is not first-line, and mechanical ventilation is supportive but
not the first intervention.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has chronic stable angina and a
prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "Replace your bottle of tablets every 3 months for best effectiveness."
B) "Place one tablet under the tongue 30 minutes before exercise to prevent angina chest
pain."
C) "Call 911 if chest pain is not relieved within 20 minutes of taking nitroglycerin."
D) "As soon as chest pain occurs, place one tablet under the tongue."
Rationale: Nitroglycerin should be taken immediately when chest pain occurs. Tablets
should be replaced every 6 months, not 3. Taking before exercise is for prevention but not
the primary instruction. Calling 911 after 5 minutes, not 20, is recommended.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who is scheduled to receive an initial dose of
tobramycin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A) The client reports taking acetaminophen for pain.
B) The client's potassium level is 4.1 mEq/L.
C) The client has an allergy to sulfonamides.
D) The client's creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dL.
Rationale: Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside, nephrotoxic. Elevated creatinine indicates
renal impairment and risk for toxicity. Acetaminophen, normal potassium, and
sulfonamide allergy are not contraindications.
A nurse is administering ear drops into an adult client's right ear. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A) Straighten the ear canal by pulling the auricle down and back.
B) Assist the client into Fowler's position.
C) Place a cotton ball in the ear canal for 30 min after instilling the drops.
D) Instill drops holding the dropper 1 cm (0.4 in.) above the ear canal.
