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ATLS 10th Edition Post Test Actual Questions
& Answers (Verified Answers)
Update, 100% Guaranteed Score Pass
||Complete A+ Guide
Q1. During the primary survey of a multi-trauma patient, you
note absent breath sounds on the left and tracheal deviation
to the right. What is the next step?
• A) Needle decompression of the left chest
• B) Immediate chest tube insertion
• C) Endotracheal intubation
• D) Chest x-ray
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis.
Needle decompression (A) is temporizing; chest tube is
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definitive. Intubation without decompression worsens
hypotension.
Q2. A 28-year-old male arrives after a motorcycle crash. He
is unconscious, GCS 6, large scalp laceration. BP 70/40, pulse
130. After securing the airway, your next priority is:
• A) CT head
• B) Identify and control source of bleeding
• C) IV fluids
• D) Apply cervical collar
Rationale: Hypotension + altered mental status =
hemorrhagic shock until proven otherwise. Bleeding
control precedes imaging.
Q3. Which is the earliest sign of adequate resuscitation in
hemorrhagic shock?
• A) Normal blood pressure
• B) Improved mental status
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• C) Urine output >0.5 mL/kg/hr
• D) Warm, dry skin
Rationale: Cerebral perfusion improves before BP
normalizes.
Q4. A 40-year-old with gunshot wound to the right thigh has
an actively bleeding wound. BP 90/60, pulse 120. Next step:
• A) Apply tourniquet
• B) Direct pressure and wound packing
• C) Start 2 large-bore IVs
• D) Ultrasound for FAST exam
Rationale: Direct pressure is first-line for extremity
hemorrhage. Tourniquet if direct pressure fails.
Q5. Which of the following is an indication for pelvic binder
placement?
• A) Pelvic pain with normal x-ray
• B) Unstable pelvic fracture with hypotension
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• C) Isolated pubic ramus fracture
• D) Positive FAST exam
Rationale: Pelvic binders reduce volume and stabilize
fractures in hemodynamically unstable patients.
Q6. A 55-year-old fall from height has bilateral femur
fractures. BP 80/50 after 1 L crystalloid. Next best step:
• A) Second liter of crystalloid
• B) Transfuse packed red blood cells
• C) Dopamine infusion
• D) CT chest/abdomen/pelvis
Rationale: Persistent hypotension after 1 L crystalloid in
major fractures indicates need for blood transfusion.
Q7. During primary survey, patient becomes apneic. You
attempt BVM but cannot ventilate due to severe facial trauma.
Next step:
• A) Nasopharyngeal airway
ATLS 10th Edition Post Test Actual Questions
& Answers (Verified Answers)
Update, 100% Guaranteed Score Pass
||Complete A+ Guide
Q1. During the primary survey of a multi-trauma patient, you
note absent breath sounds on the left and tracheal deviation
to the right. What is the next step?
• A) Needle decompression of the left chest
• B) Immediate chest tube insertion
• C) Endotracheal intubation
• D) Chest x-ray
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis.
Needle decompression (A) is temporizing; chest tube is
,Page 2 of 150
definitive. Intubation without decompression worsens
hypotension.
Q2. A 28-year-old male arrives after a motorcycle crash. He
is unconscious, GCS 6, large scalp laceration. BP 70/40, pulse
130. After securing the airway, your next priority is:
• A) CT head
• B) Identify and control source of bleeding
• C) IV fluids
• D) Apply cervical collar
Rationale: Hypotension + altered mental status =
hemorrhagic shock until proven otherwise. Bleeding
control precedes imaging.
Q3. Which is the earliest sign of adequate resuscitation in
hemorrhagic shock?
• A) Normal blood pressure
• B) Improved mental status
,Page 3 of 150
• C) Urine output >0.5 mL/kg/hr
• D) Warm, dry skin
Rationale: Cerebral perfusion improves before BP
normalizes.
Q4. A 40-year-old with gunshot wound to the right thigh has
an actively bleeding wound. BP 90/60, pulse 120. Next step:
• A) Apply tourniquet
• B) Direct pressure and wound packing
• C) Start 2 large-bore IVs
• D) Ultrasound for FAST exam
Rationale: Direct pressure is first-line for extremity
hemorrhage. Tourniquet if direct pressure fails.
Q5. Which of the following is an indication for pelvic binder
placement?
• A) Pelvic pain with normal x-ray
• B) Unstable pelvic fracture with hypotension
, Page 4 of 150
• C) Isolated pubic ramus fracture
• D) Positive FAST exam
Rationale: Pelvic binders reduce volume and stabilize
fractures in hemodynamically unstable patients.
Q6. A 55-year-old fall from height has bilateral femur
fractures. BP 80/50 after 1 L crystalloid. Next best step:
• A) Second liter of crystalloid
• B) Transfuse packed red blood cells
• C) Dopamine infusion
• D) CT chest/abdomen/pelvis
Rationale: Persistent hypotension after 1 L crystalloid in
major fractures indicates need for blood transfusion.
Q7. During primary survey, patient becomes apneic. You
attempt BVM but cannot ventilate due to severe facial trauma.
Next step:
• A) Nasopharyngeal airway
