1
ARDMS Sonography Principles and
Instrumentation (SPI) Exam Study Guide |
Updated Edition
1. There have been no proven biological effects for unfocused transducers for
intensities below: - ANSWER 100mW/cm2 SPTA
2. The primary cause of attenuation of ultrasound in soft tissue is caused by: -
ANSWER absorption
3. Resolution artifact - ANSWER When two structures parallel to the
ultrasound beam are displayed as one reflector.
4. Damping does not decrease: - ANSWER bandwidth
5. Spectral Broadening - ANSWER The widening of the doppler shift
spectrum. Meaning the increase of the range of doppler shift frequencies
present, owing to a broader range of flow speeds encountered by the sound
beam.
6. Refraction - ANSWER Change in direction of a wave when it changs speed
as in travels from one material to another. The change in the direction of
sound as it crosses a boundary.
7. autocorrelation - ANSWER used to convert Doppler shift information into
color.
8. Which gain will increase the risk of bioeffects?
a. transmit
b. receive
c. gain
d. overall gain - ANSWER a. transmit
8. There have been no proven biological effects for unfocused transducers for
intensities below: - ANSWER 100mW/cm2 SPTA
, 2
9. The primary cause of attenuation of ultrasound in soft tissue is caused by: -
ANSWER absorption
10. Resolution artifact - ANSWER When two structures parallel to the
ultrasound beam are displayed as one reflector.
11.Damping does not decrease: - ANSWER bandwidth
12.Spectral Broadening - ANSWER The widening of the doppler shift
spectrum. Meaning the increase of the range of doppler shift frequencies
present, owing to a broader range of flow speeds encountered by the sound
beam.
13.Refraction - ANSWER Change in direction of a wave when it changs speed
as in travels from one material to another. The change in the direction of
sound as it crosses a boundary.
14.autocorrelation - ANSWER used to convert Doppler shift information into
color.
15. Which of the following is considered the memory of an ultrasound instrument?
a. pulser
b. transducer
c. receiver
d. beam former
e. digital scan converter
f. display monitor - ANSWER e. digital scan converter
16. Spectral broadening suggest:
a. laminar flow
b. turbulent flow
c. flow away from the transducer
d. flow towards the transducer - ANSWER b. turbulent flow
17. With pulse wave Doppler axial resolution: - ANSWER degrades
18. What color is usually use in color flow Doppler variance map to indicate
turbulent flow? - ANSWER green
, 3
19. Doppler high pass filter eliminates: - ANSWER high amplitude signals; low
velocity flow
20. The Doppler wall filter is considered a: - ANSWER high pass filter
21. The Nyquist Limit is equal to:
a. propagation speed x frequency
b. propagation speed/ wavelength
c. PRF/2
d. 4xV^2 - ANSWER c. PRF/2
21. Multiple echoes, equally spaced originating from a gas bubble is called:
a. comet tail
b. ring down
c. slice thickness artifact
d. multipath - ANSWER b. ring down
22. An increase in red blood cell velocity will_____ the Doppler Shift:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. not change
d. cannot be predicted - ANSWER a. increase
23. The primary advantage of CW Doppler is:
a. range resolution
b. range discrimination
c. range ambiguity
d. range gating
e. absence of sampling rate - ANSWER e. absence of sampling rate
24. The range for ultrasound begins:
a. 20 Hz
b. 20,000 Hz
c. 2 MHz
d. 15 MHz - ANSWER b. 20,000 Hz (useful frequency range for clinical imaging
is 2MHz-10MHz)
25. Which instrument control affects the amplitude (dB) of the outgoing signal:
a. gain
b. receiver gain
, 4
c. TGC
d. transmit gain
e. overall gain - ANSWER d. transmit gain; amplitude can be affected by the
sonographer
26. Which of the following is used to convert Doppler shift information into color:
a. high PRF
b. fast Fourier transform
c. autocorrelation
d. time interval histogram - ANSWER c. autocorrelation
b is incorrect because fast Fourier transform is the method used to process
conventional Doppler shift information but is too slow a method for color Doppler
27. Pulse repetition frequency - ANSWER Number of pulses that an ultrasound
system transmits into the body each second. Hz. Typically 4-15 KHz. PRF and
depth of a view are inversely related: When system is imaging deeper, the pulse
repetition frequency is lower.
Also the number of pulses created each second
28. The best way to increase the near field length of an ultrasound beam is to: -
ANSWER increase transducer diameter
29. The range of frequencies produced by a damped PZT element is called:
a. fundamental frequencies
b. Q Factor
c. near field
d. bandwith - ANSWER d. bandwidth
30. The percentage of time that the ultrasound instrument is emitting ultrasound is
called:
a. PRF
b. pulse duration
c. pulse repetition period
d. duty factor - ANSWER d. duty factor; the maximum value is 1, the minimum is
0
31. The unit of duty factor is:
a. Hz
b. mm
c. ms
ARDMS Sonography Principles and
Instrumentation (SPI) Exam Study Guide |
Updated Edition
1. There have been no proven biological effects for unfocused transducers for
intensities below: - ANSWER 100mW/cm2 SPTA
2. The primary cause of attenuation of ultrasound in soft tissue is caused by: -
ANSWER absorption
3. Resolution artifact - ANSWER When two structures parallel to the
ultrasound beam are displayed as one reflector.
4. Damping does not decrease: - ANSWER bandwidth
5. Spectral Broadening - ANSWER The widening of the doppler shift
spectrum. Meaning the increase of the range of doppler shift frequencies
present, owing to a broader range of flow speeds encountered by the sound
beam.
6. Refraction - ANSWER Change in direction of a wave when it changs speed
as in travels from one material to another. The change in the direction of
sound as it crosses a boundary.
7. autocorrelation - ANSWER used to convert Doppler shift information into
color.
8. Which gain will increase the risk of bioeffects?
a. transmit
b. receive
c. gain
d. overall gain - ANSWER a. transmit
8. There have been no proven biological effects for unfocused transducers for
intensities below: - ANSWER 100mW/cm2 SPTA
, 2
9. The primary cause of attenuation of ultrasound in soft tissue is caused by: -
ANSWER absorption
10. Resolution artifact - ANSWER When two structures parallel to the
ultrasound beam are displayed as one reflector.
11.Damping does not decrease: - ANSWER bandwidth
12.Spectral Broadening - ANSWER The widening of the doppler shift
spectrum. Meaning the increase of the range of doppler shift frequencies
present, owing to a broader range of flow speeds encountered by the sound
beam.
13.Refraction - ANSWER Change in direction of a wave when it changs speed
as in travels from one material to another. The change in the direction of
sound as it crosses a boundary.
14.autocorrelation - ANSWER used to convert Doppler shift information into
color.
15. Which of the following is considered the memory of an ultrasound instrument?
a. pulser
b. transducer
c. receiver
d. beam former
e. digital scan converter
f. display monitor - ANSWER e. digital scan converter
16. Spectral broadening suggest:
a. laminar flow
b. turbulent flow
c. flow away from the transducer
d. flow towards the transducer - ANSWER b. turbulent flow
17. With pulse wave Doppler axial resolution: - ANSWER degrades
18. What color is usually use in color flow Doppler variance map to indicate
turbulent flow? - ANSWER green
, 3
19. Doppler high pass filter eliminates: - ANSWER high amplitude signals; low
velocity flow
20. The Doppler wall filter is considered a: - ANSWER high pass filter
21. The Nyquist Limit is equal to:
a. propagation speed x frequency
b. propagation speed/ wavelength
c. PRF/2
d. 4xV^2 - ANSWER c. PRF/2
21. Multiple echoes, equally spaced originating from a gas bubble is called:
a. comet tail
b. ring down
c. slice thickness artifact
d. multipath - ANSWER b. ring down
22. An increase in red blood cell velocity will_____ the Doppler Shift:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. not change
d. cannot be predicted - ANSWER a. increase
23. The primary advantage of CW Doppler is:
a. range resolution
b. range discrimination
c. range ambiguity
d. range gating
e. absence of sampling rate - ANSWER e. absence of sampling rate
24. The range for ultrasound begins:
a. 20 Hz
b. 20,000 Hz
c. 2 MHz
d. 15 MHz - ANSWER b. 20,000 Hz (useful frequency range for clinical imaging
is 2MHz-10MHz)
25. Which instrument control affects the amplitude (dB) of the outgoing signal:
a. gain
b. receiver gain
, 4
c. TGC
d. transmit gain
e. overall gain - ANSWER d. transmit gain; amplitude can be affected by the
sonographer
26. Which of the following is used to convert Doppler shift information into color:
a. high PRF
b. fast Fourier transform
c. autocorrelation
d. time interval histogram - ANSWER c. autocorrelation
b is incorrect because fast Fourier transform is the method used to process
conventional Doppler shift information but is too slow a method for color Doppler
27. Pulse repetition frequency - ANSWER Number of pulses that an ultrasound
system transmits into the body each second. Hz. Typically 4-15 KHz. PRF and
depth of a view are inversely related: When system is imaging deeper, the pulse
repetition frequency is lower.
Also the number of pulses created each second
28. The best way to increase the near field length of an ultrasound beam is to: -
ANSWER increase transducer diameter
29. The range of frequencies produced by a damped PZT element is called:
a. fundamental frequencies
b. Q Factor
c. near field
d. bandwith - ANSWER d. bandwidth
30. The percentage of time that the ultrasound instrument is emitting ultrasound is
called:
a. PRF
b. pulse duration
c. pulse repetition period
d. duty factor - ANSWER d. duty factor; the maximum value is 1, the minimum is
0
31. The unit of duty factor is:
a. Hz
b. mm
c. ms
