Chamberlain University
NR 511 Midterm Exam 2026/2027. 100%
Complete Verified Questions and Answers
Exam. Latest Revised Update.
1. In the table above, what is the sensitivity of the Prostate Specific Antigen
(PSA) for detecting prostate cancer?
Answer:
Rationale: Sensitivity is the proportion of clients with the disease that have a
positive result; it is the number of true positives divided by the total number of
clients who have the disease.
2. A diagnostic test is used in a sample of 1000 clients. 500 of these clients
have the disease, while 500 do not. Of those 500 clients without the disease,
30 tests positive, and 470 tests negative. What is the specificity of the test?
Answer:
Rationale: Specificity is the proportion of 'test negative' of total without the
disease; the number of true negatives over all negatives. In this example,
500/1000 clients have the disease; 30 test positive, and 470 test negative.
3. The Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of a test refers to which of the
following?
Answer: Test PPV refers to the proportion of clients with a positive test who
have the disease.
Rationale: PPV is the probability that a person with a positive test result
actually has the disease. It is calculated as true positives divided by all positives
(true positives + false positives).
,4. Which of the following depends on the prevalence of the disease?
Answer: Predictive values depend on the prevalence of disease in the
population whereas sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic properties of the
test. Reliability refers to the consistency or stability of a measure.
Rationale: Sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic properties of a test and do not
change with prevalence. However, predictive values (PPV and NPV) are directly
affected by the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested.
5. A low pretest probability of disease may lead to which of the following?
Answer: Low positive predictive value and more false-positive results.
Rationale: Positive predictive value increases with prevalence; thus, low
prevalence value yields a low positive predictive value and implies a high false-
positive rate. Negative predictive value decreases with prevalence, and
sensitivity/specificity do not vary.
6. If you strongly suspect that a client is positive for a specific condition but
tests negative, the negative result may be:
Answer: False-negative test results due to a low negative predictive value.
Rationale: Your clinical suspicion is equivalent to pre-test probability and high
prevalence of a population. Negative predictive value is inversely correlated
with prevalence. Your clinical suspicion is a low negative predictive value,
suggesting a false-negative.
7. A client has a positive rapid strep test. Knowing nothing else, how likely is
it that the client has strep pharyngitis?
Answer: Cannot be determined from this information.
,Rationale: Without a pre-test probability the test result cannot be interpreted
accurately. The PPV depends on the prevalence of strep pharyngitis in the
population, which is unknown in this scenario.
8. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Fever
Answer: CBC
Rationale: A CBC evaluates white blood cell count, which can indicate infection
or inflammation causing fever.
9. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Unexplained
bruising
Answer: CBC
Rationale: A CBC assesses platelet count and hemoglobin/hematocrit, which
are relevant to bruising disorders.
10. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Fatigue
Answer: CBC, CMP
Rationale: CBC evaluates for anemia or infection; CMP evaluates glucose, liver,
kidney, and electrolyte abnormalities that may cause fatigue.
11. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Cardiac
dysrhythmias
Answer: CMP, electrolyte abnormalities
Rationale: Electrolyte imbalances (potassium, calcium, magnesium) can cause
cardiac dysrhythmias; CMP evaluates these levels.
12. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Unexplained
weight loss
, Answer: CBC, CMP
Rationale: Check WBC for inflammation or possible cancer, CMP for glucose,
liver or kidney abnormalities.
13. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Edema
Answer: CMP
Rationale: CMP evaluates liver and kidney function, as well as albumin levels,
which are common causes of edema.
14. SNAPPS
Answer:
• Summarize the history and findings
• Narrow the differential diagnosis to two or three possibilities
• Analyze the differential by comparing and contrasting the possibilities
• Probe the preceptor by asking questions about alternative approaches or
uncertainties
• Plan the management of the client's health issues
• Select an issue from the case for self-directed learning
Rationale: SNAPPS is a learner-centered educational mnemonic used in clinical
teaching to help students organize and present patient cases efficiently.
15. Pruritis
Answer: Pruritus is the sensation of itching accompanied by the urge to scratch
and can be considered as acute or chronic. It can be a symptom of an actual
dermatological issue or it can be a symptom of another disease or drug
reaction. In persons older than 65, pruritis is the most common skin complaint
encountered in primary care. Pruritis is caused from a localized reaction, as in
the case of an insect bite or it can be caused from a systemic response. A
NR 511 Midterm Exam 2026/2027. 100%
Complete Verified Questions and Answers
Exam. Latest Revised Update.
1. In the table above, what is the sensitivity of the Prostate Specific Antigen
(PSA) for detecting prostate cancer?
Answer:
Rationale: Sensitivity is the proportion of clients with the disease that have a
positive result; it is the number of true positives divided by the total number of
clients who have the disease.
2. A diagnostic test is used in a sample of 1000 clients. 500 of these clients
have the disease, while 500 do not. Of those 500 clients without the disease,
30 tests positive, and 470 tests negative. What is the specificity of the test?
Answer:
Rationale: Specificity is the proportion of 'test negative' of total without the
disease; the number of true negatives over all negatives. In this example,
500/1000 clients have the disease; 30 test positive, and 470 test negative.
3. The Positive Predictive Value (PPV) of a test refers to which of the
following?
Answer: Test PPV refers to the proportion of clients with a positive test who
have the disease.
Rationale: PPV is the probability that a person with a positive test result
actually has the disease. It is calculated as true positives divided by all positives
(true positives + false positives).
,4. Which of the following depends on the prevalence of the disease?
Answer: Predictive values depend on the prevalence of disease in the
population whereas sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic properties of the
test. Reliability refers to the consistency or stability of a measure.
Rationale: Sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic properties of a test and do not
change with prevalence. However, predictive values (PPV and NPV) are directly
affected by the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested.
5. A low pretest probability of disease may lead to which of the following?
Answer: Low positive predictive value and more false-positive results.
Rationale: Positive predictive value increases with prevalence; thus, low
prevalence value yields a low positive predictive value and implies a high false-
positive rate. Negative predictive value decreases with prevalence, and
sensitivity/specificity do not vary.
6. If you strongly suspect that a client is positive for a specific condition but
tests negative, the negative result may be:
Answer: False-negative test results due to a low negative predictive value.
Rationale: Your clinical suspicion is equivalent to pre-test probability and high
prevalence of a population. Negative predictive value is inversely correlated
with prevalence. Your clinical suspicion is a low negative predictive value,
suggesting a false-negative.
7. A client has a positive rapid strep test. Knowing nothing else, how likely is
it that the client has strep pharyngitis?
Answer: Cannot be determined from this information.
,Rationale: Without a pre-test probability the test result cannot be interpreted
accurately. The PPV depends on the prevalence of strep pharyngitis in the
population, which is unknown in this scenario.
8. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Fever
Answer: CBC
Rationale: A CBC evaluates white blood cell count, which can indicate infection
or inflammation causing fever.
9. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Unexplained
bruising
Answer: CBC
Rationale: A CBC assesses platelet count and hemoglobin/hematocrit, which
are relevant to bruising disorders.
10. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Fatigue
Answer: CBC, CMP
Rationale: CBC evaluates for anemia or infection; CMP evaluates glucose, liver,
kidney, and electrolyte abnormalities that may cause fatigue.
11. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Cardiac
dysrhythmias
Answer: CMP, electrolyte abnormalities
Rationale: Electrolyte imbalances (potassium, calcium, magnesium) can cause
cardiac dysrhythmias; CMP evaluates these levels.
12. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Unexplained
weight loss
, Answer: CBC, CMP
Rationale: Check WBC for inflammation or possible cancer, CMP for glucose,
liver or kidney abnormalities.
13. Which test(s) provide data relevant to the chief complaint: Edema
Answer: CMP
Rationale: CMP evaluates liver and kidney function, as well as albumin levels,
which are common causes of edema.
14. SNAPPS
Answer:
• Summarize the history and findings
• Narrow the differential diagnosis to two or three possibilities
• Analyze the differential by comparing and contrasting the possibilities
• Probe the preceptor by asking questions about alternative approaches or
uncertainties
• Plan the management of the client's health issues
• Select an issue from the case for self-directed learning
Rationale: SNAPPS is a learner-centered educational mnemonic used in clinical
teaching to help students organize and present patient cases efficiently.
15. Pruritis
Answer: Pruritus is the sensation of itching accompanied by the urge to scratch
and can be considered as acute or chronic. It can be a symptom of an actual
dermatological issue or it can be a symptom of another disease or drug
reaction. In persons older than 65, pruritis is the most common skin complaint
encountered in primary care. Pruritis is caused from a localized reaction, as in
the case of an insect bite or it can be caused from a systemic response. A
