AAPC CERTIFIED PROFESSIONAL CODER (CPC) CERTIFICATION ACTUAL EXAM PREP 2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ALREADY A GRADED WITH EXPERT FEEDBACK |NEW AND REVISED

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AAPC CERTIFIED PROFESSIONAL CODER
(CPC) CERTIFICATION ACTUAL EXAM PREP
2026 ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
ALREADY A GRADED WITH EXPERT
FEEDBACK |NEW AND REVISED

1. A 45-year-old patient presents with chest pain and shortness of breath.
The physician performs a comprehensive history and comprehensive
examination, with medical decision making of high complexity. What
level of Evaluation and Management (E/M) service should be reported?
A) 99213
B) 99214
C) 99215
D) 99204
Rationale: 99215 is used for an established patient office/outpatient
visit with a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and
high-complexity medical decision making. 99214 is moderate
complexity, 99213 is low complexity, and 99204 is for a new patient
visit.
2. A patient undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The surgeon
encounters extensive adhesions requiring significant additional work to
complete the procedure. What modifier should be appended to the
primary procedure code?
A) Modifier -51
B) Modifier -22
C) Modifier -47
D) Modifier -52
Rationale: Modifier -22 (Increased Procedural Services) is used when
the work required to perform a procedure is substantially greater than

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typically required, such as when extensive adhesions are encountered.
Modifier -51 is for multiple procedures, -47 for anesthesia by surgeon,
and -52 for reduced services.
3. A patient is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic
neuropathy. What is the correct ICD-10-CM code assignment?
A) E11.9
B) E11.40
C) E11.42
D) E11.65
Rationale: E11.42 is the correct code for Type 2 diabetes mellitus with
diabetic polyneuropathy. E11.9 is diabetes without complications,
E11.40 is with diabetic neuropathy unspecified, and E11.65 is with
hyperglycemia.
4. A physician performs a bilateral mammogram with computer-aided
detection (CAD). What CPT® code should be reported?
A) 77065
B) 77066
C) 77067
D) 77063
Rationale: 77067 is the correct code for screening mammography,
bilateral (2-view study of each breast), including computer-aided
detection (CAD) when performed. 77065 is for unilateral diagnostic
mammography, 77066 for bilateral diagnostic mammography, and
77063 for screening digital breast tomosynthesis.
5. A 72-year-old patient with end-stage renal disease presents for
hemodialysis. The physician evaluates the patient and manages the
dialysis session. What code should be used for the physician's services?
A) 90935
B) 90945
C) 90999
D) 99211

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Rationale: 90945 is used for dialysis services, hemodialysis, with single
physician evaluation and management of the dialysis session. 90935 is
for hemodialysis without a physician evaluation. 90999 is unlisted
dialysis procedure.
6. A patient undergoes a total knee arthroplasty. During the same
surgical session, the surgeon performs a synovectomy of the knee. How
should this be coded?
A) Report 27447 only
B) Report 27447 and 27331 with modifier -51
C) Report 27447 and 27331 with modifier -59
D) Report 27331 only
Rationale: 27447 (Total knee arthroplasty) is the primary procedure.
27331 (Synovectomy, knee, popliteal space) is a separate procedure
and should be reported with modifier -51 (Multiple Procedures) to
indicate multiple procedures performed during the same surgical
session.
7. A patient is seen for a follow-up visit after a myocardial infarction.
The physician documents "history of myocardial infarction" but the
patient is not currently being treated for it. What is the correct ICD-10-
CM code?
A) I21.9
B) I25.2
C) Z86.74
D) I20.9
Rationale: I25.2 (Old myocardial infarction) is used when the patient
has a history of a myocardial infarction that is no longer being treated.
I21.9 is for acute MI, Z86.74 is personal history of MI, but I25.2 is
more specific for the condition itself.
8. An anesthesiologist provides anesthesia for a patient undergoing a
total hip replacement. The patient is 72 years old and has severe
systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. What physical status

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modifier should be reported?
A) P4
B) P3
C) P2
D) P5
Rationale: P4 is used for a patient with severe systemic disease that is
a constant threat to life. P3 is for severe systemic disease, P2 for mild
systemic disease, and P5 for moribund patient who is not expected to
survive without surgery.
9. A physician performs a comprehensive evaluation and management
service for a new patient in the office. The documentation includes a
comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and high-
complexity medical decision making. What code should be reported?
A) 99205
B) 99215
C) 99205
D) 99204
Rationale: 99205 is the correct code for a new patient office/outpatient
visit with comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and
high-complexity medical decision making. 99204 is for moderate
complexity, and 99215 is for an established patient.
10. A patient is seen for a routine gynecological examination, including
a Pap smear. What ICD-10-CM code should be reported for the
encounter?
A) N92.0
B) Z01.411
C) Z12.4
D) Z01.419
Rationale: Z01.411 is the correct code for a routine gynecological
examination with abnormal findings. Z12.4 is for screening for