NR 222 Health & Wellness Exam 1-4 | Multiple-
Choice Questions With Answers | 2026/2027 Updates |
Chamberlain School Of Nursing
Document Entails;
Exam 1: Foundations of Health & Wellness
Exam 2: Health Promotion & Disease Prevention
Exam 3: Cultural Competence, Ethics & Lifespan Health
Exam 4: Community Health, Leadership & Contemporary Issues
Question 1.
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of health according to the World
Health Organization (WHO)?
A. The absence of disease or infirmity
B. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being
C. The ability to perform activities of daily living without assistance
D. A dynamic process of adapting to one's environment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The WHO (1948) defines health as "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being
and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." Option A is the outdated biomedical
definition. Option C reflects functional health. Option D reflects a nursing/adaptation model.
Question 2.
A nurse is teaching a patient about primary prevention. Which of the following activities
is the best example of primary prevention?
,A. Receiving an annual influenza vaccination
B. Undergoing a mammogram every 2 years
C. Participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program after a myocardial infarction
D. Taking prescribed antihypertensive medication daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs. Immunizations, health
education, and lifestyle counseling are classic examples. Mammography (B) is secondary
prevention (early detection). Cardiac rehabilitation (C) and antihypertensive medication (D) are
tertiary prevention.
Question 3.
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
A. Administering a hepatitis B vaccine
B. Teaching a patient about a low-sodium diet
C. Performing a Pap smear to detect cervical cancer
D. Providing rehabilitation services after a stroke
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and treatment of disease. Pap smears screen
for cervical cancer at an early, treatable stage. Vaccination (A) and diet teaching (B) are primary
prevention. Rehabilitation after stroke (D) is tertiary prevention.
Question 4.
Which of the following is the best example of tertiary prevention?
A. A smoking cessation program
B. A mammogram screening
C. A cardiac rehabilitation program after a heart attack
D. An immunization clinic
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale:
Tertiary prevention focuses on managing existing disease to prevent complications and improve
quality of life. Cardiac rehabilitation after a heart attack is a classic example. Smoking cessation
(A) and immunizations (D) are primary prevention. Mammograms (B) are secondary prevention.
Question 5.
A nurse is assessing a patient's functional health status. Which of the following tools is
specifically designed to measure a patient's ability to perform activities of daily living
(ADLs)?
A. Glasgow Coma Scale
B. Katz Index of Independence in ADLs
C. Mini-Mental State Examination
D. Braden Scale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The Katz Index of Independence in ADLs is a standardized tool used to assess functional status
by evaluating independence in six ADLs: bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence,
and feeding. The Glasgow Coma Scale (A) assesses consciousness. The MMSE (C) assesses
cognition. The Braden Scale (D) assesses risk for pressure ulcers.
Question 6.
Which of the following best describes the concept of "health literacy"?
A. The ability to read and write at a grade-appropriate level
B. The capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information to make informed
health decisions
C. The level of education a person has achieved
D. The ability to speak multiple languages
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
, Health literacy is defined as the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process,
and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health
decisions. It is not simply reading level (A), educational attainment (C), or multilingual ability (D).
Question 7.
Which of the following is considered a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
A. Family history of heart disease
B. Age
C. Hypertension
D. Male gender
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Modifiable risk factors are those that can be changed or controlled through intervention.
Hypertension is modifiable through lifestyle changes and medication. Family history (A), age (B),
and male gender (D) are non-modifiable risk factors.
Question 8.
A nurse is caring for a patient who states, "I know I should quit smoking, but I just can't."
According to the Transtheoretical Model of Change, which stage is this patient most likely
in?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
In the Contemplation stage, individuals are aware that a problem exists and are seriously
thinking about overcoming it but have not yet made a commitment to action. The patient
acknowledges the need to quit (awareness) but expresses inability to act, which is characteristic
of contemplation. Precontemplation (A) involves no intention to change. Preparation (C) involves
intending to take action within the next month. Action (D) involves actively modifying behavior.
Choice Questions With Answers | 2026/2027 Updates |
Chamberlain School Of Nursing
Document Entails;
Exam 1: Foundations of Health & Wellness
Exam 2: Health Promotion & Disease Prevention
Exam 3: Cultural Competence, Ethics & Lifespan Health
Exam 4: Community Health, Leadership & Contemporary Issues
Question 1.
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of health according to the World
Health Organization (WHO)?
A. The absence of disease or infirmity
B. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being
C. The ability to perform activities of daily living without assistance
D. A dynamic process of adapting to one's environment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The WHO (1948) defines health as "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being
and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." Option A is the outdated biomedical
definition. Option C reflects functional health. Option D reflects a nursing/adaptation model.
Question 2.
A nurse is teaching a patient about primary prevention. Which of the following activities
is the best example of primary prevention?
,A. Receiving an annual influenza vaccination
B. Undergoing a mammogram every 2 years
C. Participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program after a myocardial infarction
D. Taking prescribed antihypertensive medication daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs. Immunizations, health
education, and lifestyle counseling are classic examples. Mammography (B) is secondary
prevention (early detection). Cardiac rehabilitation (C) and antihypertensive medication (D) are
tertiary prevention.
Question 3.
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
A. Administering a hepatitis B vaccine
B. Teaching a patient about a low-sodium diet
C. Performing a Pap smear to detect cervical cancer
D. Providing rehabilitation services after a stroke
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and treatment of disease. Pap smears screen
for cervical cancer at an early, treatable stage. Vaccination (A) and diet teaching (B) are primary
prevention. Rehabilitation after stroke (D) is tertiary prevention.
Question 4.
Which of the following is the best example of tertiary prevention?
A. A smoking cessation program
B. A mammogram screening
C. A cardiac rehabilitation program after a heart attack
D. An immunization clinic
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale:
Tertiary prevention focuses on managing existing disease to prevent complications and improve
quality of life. Cardiac rehabilitation after a heart attack is a classic example. Smoking cessation
(A) and immunizations (D) are primary prevention. Mammograms (B) are secondary prevention.
Question 5.
A nurse is assessing a patient's functional health status. Which of the following tools is
specifically designed to measure a patient's ability to perform activities of daily living
(ADLs)?
A. Glasgow Coma Scale
B. Katz Index of Independence in ADLs
C. Mini-Mental State Examination
D. Braden Scale
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The Katz Index of Independence in ADLs is a standardized tool used to assess functional status
by evaluating independence in six ADLs: bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence,
and feeding. The Glasgow Coma Scale (A) assesses consciousness. The MMSE (C) assesses
cognition. The Braden Scale (D) assesses risk for pressure ulcers.
Question 6.
Which of the following best describes the concept of "health literacy"?
A. The ability to read and write at a grade-appropriate level
B. The capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information to make informed
health decisions
C. The level of education a person has achieved
D. The ability to speak multiple languages
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
, Health literacy is defined as the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process,
and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health
decisions. It is not simply reading level (A), educational attainment (C), or multilingual ability (D).
Question 7.
Which of the following is considered a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
A. Family history of heart disease
B. Age
C. Hypertension
D. Male gender
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Modifiable risk factors are those that can be changed or controlled through intervention.
Hypertension is modifiable through lifestyle changes and medication. Family history (A), age (B),
and male gender (D) are non-modifiable risk factors.
Question 8.
A nurse is caring for a patient who states, "I know I should quit smoking, but I just can't."
According to the Transtheoretical Model of Change, which stage is this patient most likely
in?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation
D. Action
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
In the Contemplation stage, individuals are aware that a problem exists and are seriously
thinking about overcoming it but have not yet made a commitment to action. The patient
acknowledges the need to quit (awareness) but expresses inability to act, which is characteristic
of contemplation. Precontemplation (A) involves no intention to change. Preparation (C) involves
intending to take action within the next month. Action (D) involves actively modifying behavior.
