NR 222 Health & Wellness Exam 1 Practice Assessment 75
Multiple-Choice Questions With Answers And Rationales
2026/2027 Updates
Question 1. Which statement best describes health as defined by the World Health Organization
(WHO)?
A. Health is the absence of disease or infirmity.
B. Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
C. Health is the ability to perform all activities of daily living independently.
D. Health is determined primarily by genetic inheritance and age.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: WHO defines health broadly as physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely absence of
illness. Options A, C, and D are too narrow or deterministic.
Question 2. Which situation is an example of wellness rather than simply the absence of disease?
A. A patient with hypertension has normal blood pressure after medication.
B. A sedentary office worker begins walking, sleeping 7 to 8 hours, and managing stress well.
C. A patient is cured of pneumonia after antibiotics.
D. A patient has no symptoms and does not see a clinician for years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Wellness implies active movement toward optimal functioning and lifestyle balance. Controlled
disease or cure reflects absence or reduction of illness, not necessarily wellness.
Question 3. Which nursing activity is primary prevention?
A. Teaching a parent to use a car seat correctly.
B. Screening a newborn for phenylketonuria.
C. Rehabilitating a patient after a stroke.
D. Administering chemotherapy for cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary prevention prevents disease before it occurs, such as education and immunization.
Screening is secondary; rehabilitation and chemotherapy are tertiary or treatment.
Question 4. Which action is secondary prevention?
A. Encouraging annual influenza vaccination for older adults.
B. Performing a blood pressure screening at a community fair.
C. Teaching crutch walking after leg surgery.
D. Providing hospice care for end-stage disease.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention detects disease early in asymptomatic people. Vaccination is primary;
rehabilitation and hospice are tertiary or supportive.
Question 5. Which intervention best represents tertiary prevention?
A. Promoting condom use to prevent sexually transmitted infections.
B. Mammography for early breast cancer detection.
, Cardiac rehabilitation after myocardial infarction.
D. Hand hygiene teaching to reduce infection risk.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention reduces effects of established illness and restores function. Prevention and
screening are primary or secondary.
Question 6. In Pender’s Health Promotion Model, which client statement indicates perceived
benefits of action?
A. I know smoking is harmful.
B. If I quit smoking now, my cough and energy may improve.
C. My mother died of lung cancer.
D. All my friends smoke, so quitting will be hard.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perceived benefits are anticipated positive outcomes of a behavior. Knowledge of harm, family
history, and barriers are different constructs.
Question 7. Which factor is a social determinant of health?
A. Availability of safe housing and transportation.
B. Patient serum potassium level.
C. Specific genetic mutation inherited from a parent.
D. White blood cell count during infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Social determinants include conditions where people are born, live, learn, work, and age. Lab
values and single-gene mutations are biomedical factors.
Question 8. A clinic has higher diabetes rates among low-income patients than wealthier patients.
This pattern is best described as:
A. A health disparity.
B. A normal variation.
C. A genetic inevitability.
D. An acute illness trend.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A health disparity is a preventable difference linked to social, economic, or environmental
disadvantage. It is not simply expected variation or genetic destiny.
Question 9. Which goal is most consistent with Healthy People 2030?
A. Eliminate all chronic disease within 5 years.
B. Promote healthy development and behaviors across the life span.
C. Replace clinical care with wellness apps.
D. Focus only on hospitalized patients.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Healthy People 2030 emphasizes evidence-based objectives to improve health and well-being
across life stages and populations; it does not claim to eliminate all disease.
Question 10. Which patient scenario reflects an acute illness trajectory?
A. Symptoms of influenza develop abruptly, peak, and resolve over several days.
B. COPD gradually limits activity over decades.
C. Arthritis causes persistent joint changes for years.
Multiple-Choice Questions With Answers And Rationales
2026/2027 Updates
Question 1. Which statement best describes health as defined by the World Health Organization
(WHO)?
A. Health is the absence of disease or infirmity.
B. Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
C. Health is the ability to perform all activities of daily living independently.
D. Health is determined primarily by genetic inheritance and age.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: WHO defines health broadly as physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely absence of
illness. Options A, C, and D are too narrow or deterministic.
Question 2. Which situation is an example of wellness rather than simply the absence of disease?
A. A patient with hypertension has normal blood pressure after medication.
B. A sedentary office worker begins walking, sleeping 7 to 8 hours, and managing stress well.
C. A patient is cured of pneumonia after antibiotics.
D. A patient has no symptoms and does not see a clinician for years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Wellness implies active movement toward optimal functioning and lifestyle balance. Controlled
disease or cure reflects absence or reduction of illness, not necessarily wellness.
Question 3. Which nursing activity is primary prevention?
A. Teaching a parent to use a car seat correctly.
B. Screening a newborn for phenylketonuria.
C. Rehabilitating a patient after a stroke.
D. Administering chemotherapy for cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary prevention prevents disease before it occurs, such as education and immunization.
Screening is secondary; rehabilitation and chemotherapy are tertiary or treatment.
Question 4. Which action is secondary prevention?
A. Encouraging annual influenza vaccination for older adults.
B. Performing a blood pressure screening at a community fair.
C. Teaching crutch walking after leg surgery.
D. Providing hospice care for end-stage disease.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Secondary prevention detects disease early in asymptomatic people. Vaccination is primary;
rehabilitation and hospice are tertiary or supportive.
Question 5. Which intervention best represents tertiary prevention?
A. Promoting condom use to prevent sexually transmitted infections.
B. Mammography for early breast cancer detection.
, Cardiac rehabilitation after myocardial infarction.
D. Hand hygiene teaching to reduce infection risk.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention reduces effects of established illness and restores function. Prevention and
screening are primary or secondary.
Question 6. In Pender’s Health Promotion Model, which client statement indicates perceived
benefits of action?
A. I know smoking is harmful.
B. If I quit smoking now, my cough and energy may improve.
C. My mother died of lung cancer.
D. All my friends smoke, so quitting will be hard.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perceived benefits are anticipated positive outcomes of a behavior. Knowledge of harm, family
history, and barriers are different constructs.
Question 7. Which factor is a social determinant of health?
A. Availability of safe housing and transportation.
B. Patient serum potassium level.
C. Specific genetic mutation inherited from a parent.
D. White blood cell count during infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Social determinants include conditions where people are born, live, learn, work, and age. Lab
values and single-gene mutations are biomedical factors.
Question 8. A clinic has higher diabetes rates among low-income patients than wealthier patients.
This pattern is best described as:
A. A health disparity.
B. A normal variation.
C. A genetic inevitability.
D. An acute illness trend.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A health disparity is a preventable difference linked to social, economic, or environmental
disadvantage. It is not simply expected variation or genetic destiny.
Question 9. Which goal is most consistent with Healthy People 2030?
A. Eliminate all chronic disease within 5 years.
B. Promote healthy development and behaviors across the life span.
C. Replace clinical care with wellness apps.
D. Focus only on hospitalized patients.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Healthy People 2030 emphasizes evidence-based objectives to improve health and well-being
across life stages and populations; it does not claim to eliminate all disease.
Question 10. Which patient scenario reflects an acute illness trajectory?
A. Symptoms of influenza develop abruptly, peak, and resolve over several days.
B. COPD gradually limits activity over decades.
C. Arthritis causes persistent joint changes for years.
