EMS 1055 final exam Questions with Correct Answers (Grade A+)
Question 1: Which of the following patients is experiencing tachypnea? A patient with a respiratory
rate of 25 bpm A patient with a respiratory rate of 16 bpm A patient with a respiratory rate of 20 bpm
A patient with a respiratory rate of 12 bpm
Answer: A patient with a respiratory rate of 25 bpm
Question 2: Regarding medical abbreviations, what does the letter C with a line above it mean?
Answer: with
Question 3: Which patients should you protect yourself with BSI precautions?
Answer: all patients
Question 4: You initiate treatment of an injured patient. You are waiting for help to arrive, but are in a
huge hurry. You decide to leave before handing over care to an equal or higher level provider. This is
called?
Answer: abandonment
Question 5: What does the R in the CHART acronym represent?
Answer: Treatment rendered
Question 6: You are assessing the pupils of a patient with a significant head injury. You notice that one
pupils is dilated while the other appears normal (ipsilateral pupil dilation). What condition do you
suspect?
Answer: Cerebral herniation
Question 7: You ask an adult patient for consent to treat them and they verbally respond that you can.
What kind of consent is this?
Answer: expressed
Question 8: You palpate a radial pulse and it is present. You know that the systolic blood pressure is at
LEAST?
Answer: 80 mmHG
Page 1
,Question 9: Which of the following is defined by only performing skills and treatment that fall within
your certification and training?
Answer: Scope of Practice
Question 10: The respiratory pattern that is fast and deep, often associated with metabolic acidosis
secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is called?
Answer: Kussmal's
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT a sign of inadequate breathing? Tachypnea Tripoding
Accessory muscle usage Cyanosis
Answer: Tachypnea
Question 12: You are assessing AVPU on a patient. The patients eyes are closed and does not respond to
your voice. You perform a light sternal rub and the patient groans. What score do you give on the
AVPU scale?
Answer: pain
Question 13: Which nare of the nose is typically larger and should be used for NPA insertion?
Answer: Right
Question 14: Which pulse point, when palpated, can cause a vagal response and/or cause a stroke?
Answer: Carotid
Question 15: How much oxygen should you flow for a patient on a NRBM?
Answer: 10-15 LPM
Question 16: An OPA is measured from edge of the mouth to the angle of the jaw the middle of the
mouth to the earlobe middle of the mouth to the angle of the jaw the angle of the mouth to the earlobe
Answer: edge of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
Question 17: Which adjunct airway is best used in patients with an intact gag reflex?
Answer: NPA
Question 18: How much oxygen flow should you set for a BVM?
Answer: 10-15 LPM
Page 2
,Question 19: You place a patient on a SpO2 monitor. You know from lecture that you should place
oxygen on any patient with a reading lower than what value?
Answer: 94%
Question 20: How much oxygen flow should you set for a patient on a nasal cannula?
Answer: 2-6 LPM
Question 21: You are about to assess a trauma patient. Which step is done first? Airway Circulation
Breathing Assess for hemorrhage
Answer: assess for hemorrhage
Question 22: Which of the following organs will suffer the least structural damage from a gunshot
wound from a rifle? Lung Liver Spleen Kidney
Answer: Lung
Question 23: Stabilizing an impaled object is the rule of thumb for all penetrating injuries. What is the
only exception where you remove the object? Implaed objects blocking the airway Implaed objects in
the groin Knife wound to the chest Piece of steel in the abdomen
Answer: Implaed objects blocking the airway
Question 24: A patient who is ejected from a rollover MVC has an increase chance of death of:
Answer: 25%
Question 25: In a rear-impact motor vehicle crash, which area of the spine is most susceptible to
injury? Lumbar Sacral-coccygeal Thoracic Cervical
Answer: cervical
Question 26: Which of the following is a devastating injury seen in lateral (side) impact collisions?
Answer: -----
Question 27: You arrive at the scene of a MVC involving a truck that has a diamond placard that says
"corrosive" and it's leaking fluid on the ground. You should:
Answer: keep a safe distance and notify dispatch
Page 3
, Question 28: What part of the body does a primary blast injury primary involve?
Answer: air containing organs
Question 29: When treating a patient with a penetrating wound, you should look for:
Answer: ------
Question 30: The Golden Hour begins at the moment a patient is injured. When does it end?
Answer: When the patient gets to surgery
Question 31: A patient who is alert, speaking normally and obeys all commands has a GCS Score of:
Answer: 15
Question 32: What is the medical term for hives as seen in allergic reactions?
Answer: urticaria
Question 33: A 52 y/o female presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You
should: Assess adequacy of her respirations Obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history Place the patient
in a Trendelenberg to reduce the symptoms of shock Assist in administering 400 mg ASA
Answer: Assess adequacy of her respirations
Question 34: A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their MAP?
Answer: 108 (2D+S)/3
Question 35: Which of the following is correct? Your hand is distal to your elbow Your foot is proximal
to your knee Your chest is inferior to your abdomen Your nipple is medial to your sternum
Answer: Your hand is distal to your elbow
Question 36: A general impression of the patient should be performed:
Answer: at a distance when the patient is first seen
Question 37: A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their pulse pressure?
Answer: 78 (S-D)
Page 4
Question 1: Which of the following patients is experiencing tachypnea? A patient with a respiratory
rate of 25 bpm A patient with a respiratory rate of 16 bpm A patient with a respiratory rate of 20 bpm
A patient with a respiratory rate of 12 bpm
Answer: A patient with a respiratory rate of 25 bpm
Question 2: Regarding medical abbreviations, what does the letter C with a line above it mean?
Answer: with
Question 3: Which patients should you protect yourself with BSI precautions?
Answer: all patients
Question 4: You initiate treatment of an injured patient. You are waiting for help to arrive, but are in a
huge hurry. You decide to leave before handing over care to an equal or higher level provider. This is
called?
Answer: abandonment
Question 5: What does the R in the CHART acronym represent?
Answer: Treatment rendered
Question 6: You are assessing the pupils of a patient with a significant head injury. You notice that one
pupils is dilated while the other appears normal (ipsilateral pupil dilation). What condition do you
suspect?
Answer: Cerebral herniation
Question 7: You ask an adult patient for consent to treat them and they verbally respond that you can.
What kind of consent is this?
Answer: expressed
Question 8: You palpate a radial pulse and it is present. You know that the systolic blood pressure is at
LEAST?
Answer: 80 mmHG
Page 1
,Question 9: Which of the following is defined by only performing skills and treatment that fall within
your certification and training?
Answer: Scope of Practice
Question 10: The respiratory pattern that is fast and deep, often associated with metabolic acidosis
secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is called?
Answer: Kussmal's
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT a sign of inadequate breathing? Tachypnea Tripoding
Accessory muscle usage Cyanosis
Answer: Tachypnea
Question 12: You are assessing AVPU on a patient. The patients eyes are closed and does not respond to
your voice. You perform a light sternal rub and the patient groans. What score do you give on the
AVPU scale?
Answer: pain
Question 13: Which nare of the nose is typically larger and should be used for NPA insertion?
Answer: Right
Question 14: Which pulse point, when palpated, can cause a vagal response and/or cause a stroke?
Answer: Carotid
Question 15: How much oxygen should you flow for a patient on a NRBM?
Answer: 10-15 LPM
Question 16: An OPA is measured from edge of the mouth to the angle of the jaw the middle of the
mouth to the earlobe middle of the mouth to the angle of the jaw the angle of the mouth to the earlobe
Answer: edge of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
Question 17: Which adjunct airway is best used in patients with an intact gag reflex?
Answer: NPA
Question 18: How much oxygen flow should you set for a BVM?
Answer: 10-15 LPM
Page 2
,Question 19: You place a patient on a SpO2 monitor. You know from lecture that you should place
oxygen on any patient with a reading lower than what value?
Answer: 94%
Question 20: How much oxygen flow should you set for a patient on a nasal cannula?
Answer: 2-6 LPM
Question 21: You are about to assess a trauma patient. Which step is done first? Airway Circulation
Breathing Assess for hemorrhage
Answer: assess for hemorrhage
Question 22: Which of the following organs will suffer the least structural damage from a gunshot
wound from a rifle? Lung Liver Spleen Kidney
Answer: Lung
Question 23: Stabilizing an impaled object is the rule of thumb for all penetrating injuries. What is the
only exception where you remove the object? Implaed objects blocking the airway Implaed objects in
the groin Knife wound to the chest Piece of steel in the abdomen
Answer: Implaed objects blocking the airway
Question 24: A patient who is ejected from a rollover MVC has an increase chance of death of:
Answer: 25%
Question 25: In a rear-impact motor vehicle crash, which area of the spine is most susceptible to
injury? Lumbar Sacral-coccygeal Thoracic Cervical
Answer: cervical
Question 26: Which of the following is a devastating injury seen in lateral (side) impact collisions?
Answer: -----
Question 27: You arrive at the scene of a MVC involving a truck that has a diamond placard that says
"corrosive" and it's leaking fluid on the ground. You should:
Answer: keep a safe distance and notify dispatch
Page 3
, Question 28: What part of the body does a primary blast injury primary involve?
Answer: air containing organs
Question 29: When treating a patient with a penetrating wound, you should look for:
Answer: ------
Question 30: The Golden Hour begins at the moment a patient is injured. When does it end?
Answer: When the patient gets to surgery
Question 31: A patient who is alert, speaking normally and obeys all commands has a GCS Score of:
Answer: 15
Question 32: What is the medical term for hives as seen in allergic reactions?
Answer: urticaria
Question 33: A 52 y/o female presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You
should: Assess adequacy of her respirations Obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history Place the patient
in a Trendelenberg to reduce the symptoms of shock Assist in administering 400 mg ASA
Answer: Assess adequacy of her respirations
Question 34: A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their MAP?
Answer: 108 (2D+S)/3
Question 35: Which of the following is correct? Your hand is distal to your elbow Your foot is proximal
to your knee Your chest is inferior to your abdomen Your nipple is medial to your sternum
Answer: Your hand is distal to your elbow
Question 36: A general impression of the patient should be performed:
Answer: at a distance when the patient is first seen
Question 37: A patient has a blood pressure of 160/82. What is their pulse pressure?
Answer: 78 (S-D)
Page 4
