ATI TEAS Practice 2026/2027 | ATI TEAS 7 Practice Test
& Study Guide | ATI TEAS Version 7 Exam Prep with
Practice Questions, Answers & Detailed Rationales |
Reading, Mathematics, Science, Human Anatomy &
Physiology, Biology, Chemistry, Scientific Reasoning,
English & Language Usage, Grammar, Vocabulary, Data
Interpretation, Algebra, Measurement, Reading
Comprehension & Test-Taking Strategies
Question 1: Which of the following structures is primarily
responsible for regulating the passage of substances into and out of
the cell?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion
C. Plasma membrane
D. Ribosome
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Plasma membrane
Rationale: The plasma membrane is a selectively permeable phospholipid
bilayer that controls the movement of ions, nutrients, and wastes into and
out of the cell. The nucleus houses genetic material, mitochondria produce
ATP, and ribosomes synthesize proteins, so none of these perform the
regulatory barrier function.
Question 2: A nurse is reviewing the function of the integumentary
system. Which of the following is a primary function of the skin?
A. Production of red blood cells
B. Protection against pathogens and ultraviolet radiation
C. Secretion of insulin
D. Absorption of most nutrients from food
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Protection against pathogens and ultraviolet
radiation
Rationale: The skin provides a physical barrier against microorganisms,
chemicals, and UV radiation, and it also helps regulate temperature and
synthesize vitamin D. Red blood cell production occurs in bone marrow,
insulin is secreted by the pancreas, and nutrient absorption occurs mainly
in the small intestine.
Question 3: Which of the following best describes the role of
hemoglobin in the blood?
,A. It fights infection by producing antibodies.
B. It transports oxygen from the lungs to body tissues.
C. It initiates blood clotting at injury sites.
D. It regulates blood glucose concentration.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. It transports oxygen from the lungs to body
tissues.
Rationale: Hemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in red blood cells that
binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in peripheral tissues. Antibody
production is a function of lymphocytes, clotting involves platelets and
clotting factors, and glucose regulation is primarily controlled by insulin and
glucagon.
Question 4: During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the heart
muscle relax and fill with blood?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. Depolarization
D. Repolarization
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Diastole
Rationale: Diastole is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, during
which the ventricles and atria fill with blood. Systole is the contraction
phase that ejects blood. Depolarization and repolarization refer to electrical
events, not the mechanical filling phase.
Question 5: Which of the following organs is the primary site of
nutrient absorption in the digestive system?
A. Stomach
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Large intestine
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Small intestine
Rationale: The small intestine is lined with villi and microvilli that greatly
increase surface area for absorption of carbohydrates, proteins, fats,
vitamins, and minerals. The stomach primarily churns food and begins
protein digestion, the esophagus transports food, and the large intestine
mainly absorbs water and electrolytes.
,Question 6: A client has a deficiency in vitamin K. Which of the
following complications is most likely?
A. Impaired blood clotting
B. Night blindness
C. Poor wound healing due to collagen defects
D. Megaloblastic anemia
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Impaired blood clotting
Rationale: Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of several clotting factors,
including prothrombin and factors VII, IX, and X. Deficiency therefore
predisposes to bleeding. Night blindness is associated with vitamin A
deficiency, collagen defects with vitamin C deficiency, and megaloblastic
anemia with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.
Question 7: Which of the following is the correct order of the
phases of mitosis?
A. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B. Metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase
C. Anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase
D. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Rationale: Mitosis proceeds in a fixed sequence: prophase (chromosomes
condense), metaphase (chromosomes align), anaphase (sister chromatids
separate), and telophase (nuclear envelopes reform). The other options
reverse or scramble this order.
Question 8: Which of the following statements accurately describes
the difference between mitosis and meiosis?
A. Mitosis produces four haploid cells, while meiosis produces two diploid
cells.
B. Mitosis produces two identical diploid cells, while meiosis produces four
genetically diverse haploid cells.
C. Both mitosis and meiosis produce identical daughter cells.
D. Meiosis occurs in somatic cells, while mitosis occurs in gametes.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Mitosis produces two identical diploid cells,
while meiosis produces four genetically diverse haploid cells.
, Rationale: Mitosis is used for growth and repair and yields two genetically
identical diploid cells. Meiosis occurs in germ cells, includes crossing over
and independent assortment, and yields four haploid gametes that are
genetically diverse.
Question 9: Which of the following best explains why enzymes are
described as biological catalysts?
A. They increase the activation energy needed for a reaction.
B. They are consumed during the reaction they catalyze.
C. They speed up reactions by lowering activation energy without being
consumed.
D. They permanently alter the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. They speed up reactions by lowering
activation energy without being consumed.
Rationale: Enzymes accelerate biochemical reactions by lowering the
activation energy required, and they emerge unchanged from the reaction
so they can catalyze repeatedly. They do not increase activation energy, are
not consumed, and do not change the thermodynamic equilibrium of a
reaction.
Question 10: In a molecule of DNA, adenine always pairs with
which nitrogenous base?
A. Guanine
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Thymine
Rationale: In DNA, adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine, and
guanine forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosine. Uracil replaces thymine
in RNA, so it is not the correct pairing partner in DNA.
Question 11: Which of the following is the primary function of the
mitochondria?
A. Synthesis of proteins
B. Production of ATP through cellular respiration
C. Storage of genetic information
D. Modification and packaging of proteins
& Study Guide | ATI TEAS Version 7 Exam Prep with
Practice Questions, Answers & Detailed Rationales |
Reading, Mathematics, Science, Human Anatomy &
Physiology, Biology, Chemistry, Scientific Reasoning,
English & Language Usage, Grammar, Vocabulary, Data
Interpretation, Algebra, Measurement, Reading
Comprehension & Test-Taking Strategies
Question 1: Which of the following structures is primarily
responsible for regulating the passage of substances into and out of
the cell?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondrion
C. Plasma membrane
D. Ribosome
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Plasma membrane
Rationale: The plasma membrane is a selectively permeable phospholipid
bilayer that controls the movement of ions, nutrients, and wastes into and
out of the cell. The nucleus houses genetic material, mitochondria produce
ATP, and ribosomes synthesize proteins, so none of these perform the
regulatory barrier function.
Question 2: A nurse is reviewing the function of the integumentary
system. Which of the following is a primary function of the skin?
A. Production of red blood cells
B. Protection against pathogens and ultraviolet radiation
C. Secretion of insulin
D. Absorption of most nutrients from food
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Protection against pathogens and ultraviolet
radiation
Rationale: The skin provides a physical barrier against microorganisms,
chemicals, and UV radiation, and it also helps regulate temperature and
synthesize vitamin D. Red blood cell production occurs in bone marrow,
insulin is secreted by the pancreas, and nutrient absorption occurs mainly
in the small intestine.
Question 3: Which of the following best describes the role of
hemoglobin in the blood?
,A. It fights infection by producing antibodies.
B. It transports oxygen from the lungs to body tissues.
C. It initiates blood clotting at injury sites.
D. It regulates blood glucose concentration.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. It transports oxygen from the lungs to body
tissues.
Rationale: Hemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in red blood cells that
binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in peripheral tissues. Antibody
production is a function of lymphocytes, clotting involves platelets and
clotting factors, and glucose regulation is primarily controlled by insulin and
glucagon.
Question 4: During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the heart
muscle relax and fill with blood?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. Depolarization
D. Repolarization
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Diastole
Rationale: Diastole is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, during
which the ventricles and atria fill with blood. Systole is the contraction
phase that ejects blood. Depolarization and repolarization refer to electrical
events, not the mechanical filling phase.
Question 5: Which of the following organs is the primary site of
nutrient absorption in the digestive system?
A. Stomach
B. Esophagus
C. Small intestine
D. Large intestine
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Small intestine
Rationale: The small intestine is lined with villi and microvilli that greatly
increase surface area for absorption of carbohydrates, proteins, fats,
vitamins, and minerals. The stomach primarily churns food and begins
protein digestion, the esophagus transports food, and the large intestine
mainly absorbs water and electrolytes.
,Question 6: A client has a deficiency in vitamin K. Which of the
following complications is most likely?
A. Impaired blood clotting
B. Night blindness
C. Poor wound healing due to collagen defects
D. Megaloblastic anemia
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Impaired blood clotting
Rationale: Vitamin K is required for the synthesis of several clotting factors,
including prothrombin and factors VII, IX, and X. Deficiency therefore
predisposes to bleeding. Night blindness is associated with vitamin A
deficiency, collagen defects with vitamin C deficiency, and megaloblastic
anemia with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.
Question 7: Which of the following is the correct order of the
phases of mitosis?
A. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B. Metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase
C. Anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase
D. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Rationale: Mitosis proceeds in a fixed sequence: prophase (chromosomes
condense), metaphase (chromosomes align), anaphase (sister chromatids
separate), and telophase (nuclear envelopes reform). The other options
reverse or scramble this order.
Question 8: Which of the following statements accurately describes
the difference between mitosis and meiosis?
A. Mitosis produces four haploid cells, while meiosis produces two diploid
cells.
B. Mitosis produces two identical diploid cells, while meiosis produces four
genetically diverse haploid cells.
C. Both mitosis and meiosis produce identical daughter cells.
D. Meiosis occurs in somatic cells, while mitosis occurs in gametes.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Mitosis produces two identical diploid cells,
while meiosis produces four genetically diverse haploid cells.
, Rationale: Mitosis is used for growth and repair and yields two genetically
identical diploid cells. Meiosis occurs in germ cells, includes crossing over
and independent assortment, and yields four haploid gametes that are
genetically diverse.
Question 9: Which of the following best explains why enzymes are
described as biological catalysts?
A. They increase the activation energy needed for a reaction.
B. They are consumed during the reaction they catalyze.
C. They speed up reactions by lowering activation energy without being
consumed.
D. They permanently alter the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. They speed up reactions by lowering
activation energy without being consumed.
Rationale: Enzymes accelerate biochemical reactions by lowering the
activation energy required, and they emerge unchanged from the reaction
so they can catalyze repeatedly. They do not increase activation energy, are
not consumed, and do not change the thermodynamic equilibrium of a
reaction.
Question 10: In a molecule of DNA, adenine always pairs with
which nitrogenous base?
A. Guanine
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Thymine
Rationale: In DNA, adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine, and
guanine forms three hydrogen bonds with cytosine. Uracil replaces thymine
in RNA, so it is not the correct pairing partner in DNA.
Question 11: Which of the following is the primary function of the
mitochondria?
A. Synthesis of proteins
B. Production of ATP through cellular respiration
C. Storage of genetic information
D. Modification and packaging of proteins
