NURS 6531 FINAL EXAM LEARNING
WORKBOOK 2026 PHARMACOKINETICS
PHARMACODYNAMICS AND DRUG THERAPY
MANAGEMENT
◉ A female patient reports hematuria and a urine dipstick and
culture indicate a urinary tract infection. After treatment for the
urinary tract infection (UTI), what testing is indicated for this
patient?
a. 24-hour urine collection to evaluate for glomerulonephritis
b. Bladder scan
c. Repeat urinalysis
d. Voiding cystourethrogram.
Answer: ANS: C
After treatment has been completed, repeated urinalysis is
necessary to ensure that the hematuria has resolved. Failure to
follow hematuria to resolution may result in failure to diagnose a
serious condition.
◉ Which is a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
a. Hemorrhagic shock
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Hypertension
,d. Renal calculi.
Answer: ANS: A
Hemorrhagic shock interferes with perfusion of the kidney, which is
a prerenal cause of AKI. Hydronephrosis and renal calculi are
postrenal causes leading to obstruction to renal pelvis, ureters,
bladder, or urethra. Hypertension is an intrinsic cause.
◉ A primary care provider sees a new patient who reports having a
diagnosis of chronic kidney disease for several years. The patient is
taking one medication for hypertension which has been prescribed
since the diagnosis was made. The provider orders laboratory tests
to evaluate the status of this patient. Which laboratory finding
indicates a need to refer the patient to a nephrologist?
a. Albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR) of 325 mg/g
b. Blood pressure of 145/85 mm Hg
c. Glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 35
d. Urine red blood cell (RBC) count of 15/hpf.
Answer: ANS: A
An albumin/creatinine ratio greater than 300 mg/g warrants
referral. A specialist is necessary for persistent hypertension
refractory to treatment with four or more agents, a GFR of less than
30, and urine RBC greater than 20/hpf.
◉ Which tests should be monitored regularly to monitor for
complications of chronic renal disease (CRD)? (Select all that apply.)
,a. Liver enzymes
b. Parathyroid hormone levels
c. Serum glucose
d. Serum lipids
e. Vitamin D levels.
Answer: ANS: B, D, E
CKD can cause hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidemia, and
alterations in vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus metabolism, so
these should be monitored. Liver function and serum glucose are not
affected by CKD.
◉ Which is true about hypoactive sexual desire in older men?
a. Hypoactive sexual desire in older men is related to sexual
aversion.
b. Hypoactive sexual desire is a conscious choice to avoid sexual
relations.
c. Men with hypoactive sexual desire may have normal excitement
and orgasm.
d. The most common type of sexual dysfunction is hypoactive sexual
desire..
Answer: ANS: C
Men with hypoactive sexual desire have diminished response in the
desire phase of the sexual response cycle but may still experience
normal excitement and orgasm. Sexual aversion and hypoactive
, desire are not related. Many people with normal sexual desires
choose not to have sexual relations; hypoactive desire is a
physiological condition. Only 16% of men have hypoactive desire.
◉ A 50-year-old man reports having erectile dysfunction (ED). What
is an important response by the provider when developing a plan of
care for this patient?
a. Considering testosterone hormone replacement therapy
b. Evaluating the patient for cardiovascular disease
c. Prescribing an oral phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor
d. Referring the patient for psychotherapy and counseling.
Answer: ANS: B
Men under age 60 years with ED are at higher risk for cardiovascular
disease, so this patient should be evaluated for this condition. Until
the underlying cause is found, prescribing medications or hormones
is not indicated. Psychotherapy and counseling are used when
psychogenic ED is present.
◉ The provider prescribes the oral phosphodiesterase type 5
inhibitor sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) in a 65-year-old
male patient. What will be included when teaching this patient
about taking this medication? (Select all that apply.)
a. The medication is best taken on an empty stomach.
b. The medication should be taken with a fatty food or meal.
c. The medication's effects may last for 24 to 36 hours.
WORKBOOK 2026 PHARMACOKINETICS
PHARMACODYNAMICS AND DRUG THERAPY
MANAGEMENT
◉ A female patient reports hematuria and a urine dipstick and
culture indicate a urinary tract infection. After treatment for the
urinary tract infection (UTI), what testing is indicated for this
patient?
a. 24-hour urine collection to evaluate for glomerulonephritis
b. Bladder scan
c. Repeat urinalysis
d. Voiding cystourethrogram.
Answer: ANS: C
After treatment has been completed, repeated urinalysis is
necessary to ensure that the hematuria has resolved. Failure to
follow hematuria to resolution may result in failure to diagnose a
serious condition.
◉ Which is a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
a. Hemorrhagic shock
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Hypertension
,d. Renal calculi.
Answer: ANS: A
Hemorrhagic shock interferes with perfusion of the kidney, which is
a prerenal cause of AKI. Hydronephrosis and renal calculi are
postrenal causes leading to obstruction to renal pelvis, ureters,
bladder, or urethra. Hypertension is an intrinsic cause.
◉ A primary care provider sees a new patient who reports having a
diagnosis of chronic kidney disease for several years. The patient is
taking one medication for hypertension which has been prescribed
since the diagnosis was made. The provider orders laboratory tests
to evaluate the status of this patient. Which laboratory finding
indicates a need to refer the patient to a nephrologist?
a. Albumin/creatinine ratio (ACR) of 325 mg/g
b. Blood pressure of 145/85 mm Hg
c. Glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 35
d. Urine red blood cell (RBC) count of 15/hpf.
Answer: ANS: A
An albumin/creatinine ratio greater than 300 mg/g warrants
referral. A specialist is necessary for persistent hypertension
refractory to treatment with four or more agents, a GFR of less than
30, and urine RBC greater than 20/hpf.
◉ Which tests should be monitored regularly to monitor for
complications of chronic renal disease (CRD)? (Select all that apply.)
,a. Liver enzymes
b. Parathyroid hormone levels
c. Serum glucose
d. Serum lipids
e. Vitamin D levels.
Answer: ANS: B, D, E
CKD can cause hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidemia, and
alterations in vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus metabolism, so
these should be monitored. Liver function and serum glucose are not
affected by CKD.
◉ Which is true about hypoactive sexual desire in older men?
a. Hypoactive sexual desire in older men is related to sexual
aversion.
b. Hypoactive sexual desire is a conscious choice to avoid sexual
relations.
c. Men with hypoactive sexual desire may have normal excitement
and orgasm.
d. The most common type of sexual dysfunction is hypoactive sexual
desire..
Answer: ANS: C
Men with hypoactive sexual desire have diminished response in the
desire phase of the sexual response cycle but may still experience
normal excitement and orgasm. Sexual aversion and hypoactive
, desire are not related. Many people with normal sexual desires
choose not to have sexual relations; hypoactive desire is a
physiological condition. Only 16% of men have hypoactive desire.
◉ A 50-year-old man reports having erectile dysfunction (ED). What
is an important response by the provider when developing a plan of
care for this patient?
a. Considering testosterone hormone replacement therapy
b. Evaluating the patient for cardiovascular disease
c. Prescribing an oral phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor
d. Referring the patient for psychotherapy and counseling.
Answer: ANS: B
Men under age 60 years with ED are at higher risk for cardiovascular
disease, so this patient should be evaluated for this condition. Until
the underlying cause is found, prescribing medications or hormones
is not indicated. Psychotherapy and counseling are used when
psychogenic ED is present.
◉ The provider prescribes the oral phosphodiesterase type 5
inhibitor sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) in a 65-year-old
male patient. What will be included when teaching this patient
about taking this medication? (Select all that apply.)
a. The medication is best taken on an empty stomach.
b. The medication should be taken with a fatty food or meal.
c. The medication's effects may last for 24 to 36 hours.
