NURS 6531 COMPREHENSIVE ADVANCED
PRACTICE NURSING COURSE GUIDE 2026
FULL MODULE CONTENT AND CLINICAL
CONCEPTS REVIEW
◉ The provider is evaluating a patient for potential causes of urinary
incontinence and performs a postvoid residual (PVR) test which
yields 30 mL of urine. What is the interpretation of this
result?
a. The patient may have overflow incontinence.
b. The patient probably has a urinary tract infection (UTI).
c. This is a normal result.
d. This represents incomplete emptying.
Answer: ANS: C
A PVR less than 50 mL is considered normal and this result does not
indicate any abnormality.
◉ The provider is counseling a patient who has stress incontinence
about ways to minimize accidents. What will the provider suggest
initially?
,a. Increasing fluid intake to dilute the urine
b. Referral to a physical therapist
c. Taking pseudoephedrine daily
d. Voiding every 2 hours during the day
Answer: ANS: D
Timed voiding is useful to help minimize stress incontinence and is
used initially. Increasing fluid intake will increase symptoms. PT
referral may be done if other measures fail to help with exercises to
strengthen the pelvic floor muscles. Pseudoephedrine is useful, but
not an initial therapy.
◉ An older male patient reports urinary frequency, back pain, and
nocturia. A dipstick urinalysis reveals hematuria. What will the
provider do next to evaluate this condition?
a. Order a PSA and perform a digital rectal exam (DRE)
b. Refer for a biopsy
c. Refer the patient to a urologist
d. Schedule a transurethral ultrasound (TRUS)
Answer: ANS: A
Patients with symptoms of potential prostate cancer should be
screened with PSA and DRE. Referral to a urologist is the next step
even with normal findings, since PSA is occasionally normal. The
urologist may order TRUS or biopsy.
,◉ An older male patient has a screening prostate-specific antigen
(PSA) which is 12 ng/mL. What does this value indicate?
a. A normal result
b. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
c. Early prostate cancer
d. Prostate cancer
Answer: ANS: D
A PSA greater than 10 ng/mL suggests prostate cancer. A level
between 4 and 10 ng/mL may be early prostate cancer or a benign
condition. A level less than 4 ng/mL is normal.
◉ A patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer and diagnostic testing
reveals disease that has gone past the prostatic capsule without
evidence of metastasis. The patient does not wish to undergo
treatment. What will the provider tell this patient?
a. Chemotherapy is indicated to provide cure for this cancer.
b. Monitoring prostate-specific antigen (PSA) with regular digital
rectal examination (DRE) is an acceptable option.
c. Palliative radiation therapy is necessary to improve quality of life.
d. This level of disease requires intervention with hormonal therapy.
Answer: ANS: B
This patient has stage T2 prostate cancer which may be managed
with watchful waiting which includes PSA and DRE evaluation.
, Chemotherapy, palliative radiation therapy, and hormonal therapy
are not required.
◉ A male patient reports nocturia and daytime urinary frequency
and urgency without changes in the force of the urine stream. What
is the likely cause of this?
a. Bladder outlet obstruction
b. Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
c. Prostate cancer
d. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Answer: ANS: B
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) result from irritative changes
in the lower tract. Bladder outlet obstruction causes hesitancy,
decreased caliber and force of the urine stream, and postvoid
dribbling. Diagnosis of prostate cancer and UTI require further
testing and are less likely causes.
◉ A 70-year-old male reports urinary hesitancy, postvoid dribbling,
and a diminished urine stream. A digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals
an enlarged prostate gland that feels rubbery and smooth. Which
tests will the primary care provider order based on these findings?
a. Bladder scan for postvoid residual
b. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and bladder imaging
c. Urinalysis and serum creatinine
PRACTICE NURSING COURSE GUIDE 2026
FULL MODULE CONTENT AND CLINICAL
CONCEPTS REVIEW
◉ The provider is evaluating a patient for potential causes of urinary
incontinence and performs a postvoid residual (PVR) test which
yields 30 mL of urine. What is the interpretation of this
result?
a. The patient may have overflow incontinence.
b. The patient probably has a urinary tract infection (UTI).
c. This is a normal result.
d. This represents incomplete emptying.
Answer: ANS: C
A PVR less than 50 mL is considered normal and this result does not
indicate any abnormality.
◉ The provider is counseling a patient who has stress incontinence
about ways to minimize accidents. What will the provider suggest
initially?
,a. Increasing fluid intake to dilute the urine
b. Referral to a physical therapist
c. Taking pseudoephedrine daily
d. Voiding every 2 hours during the day
Answer: ANS: D
Timed voiding is useful to help minimize stress incontinence and is
used initially. Increasing fluid intake will increase symptoms. PT
referral may be done if other measures fail to help with exercises to
strengthen the pelvic floor muscles. Pseudoephedrine is useful, but
not an initial therapy.
◉ An older male patient reports urinary frequency, back pain, and
nocturia. A dipstick urinalysis reveals hematuria. What will the
provider do next to evaluate this condition?
a. Order a PSA and perform a digital rectal exam (DRE)
b. Refer for a biopsy
c. Refer the patient to a urologist
d. Schedule a transurethral ultrasound (TRUS)
Answer: ANS: A
Patients with symptoms of potential prostate cancer should be
screened with PSA and DRE. Referral to a urologist is the next step
even with normal findings, since PSA is occasionally normal. The
urologist may order TRUS or biopsy.
,◉ An older male patient has a screening prostate-specific antigen
(PSA) which is 12 ng/mL. What does this value indicate?
a. A normal result
b. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
c. Early prostate cancer
d. Prostate cancer
Answer: ANS: D
A PSA greater than 10 ng/mL suggests prostate cancer. A level
between 4 and 10 ng/mL may be early prostate cancer or a benign
condition. A level less than 4 ng/mL is normal.
◉ A patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer and diagnostic testing
reveals disease that has gone past the prostatic capsule without
evidence of metastasis. The patient does not wish to undergo
treatment. What will the provider tell this patient?
a. Chemotherapy is indicated to provide cure for this cancer.
b. Monitoring prostate-specific antigen (PSA) with regular digital
rectal examination (DRE) is an acceptable option.
c. Palliative radiation therapy is necessary to improve quality of life.
d. This level of disease requires intervention with hormonal therapy.
Answer: ANS: B
This patient has stage T2 prostate cancer which may be managed
with watchful waiting which includes PSA and DRE evaluation.
, Chemotherapy, palliative radiation therapy, and hormonal therapy
are not required.
◉ A male patient reports nocturia and daytime urinary frequency
and urgency without changes in the force of the urine stream. What
is the likely cause of this?
a. Bladder outlet obstruction
b. Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
c. Prostate cancer
d. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Answer: ANS: B
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) result from irritative changes
in the lower tract. Bladder outlet obstruction causes hesitancy,
decreased caliber and force of the urine stream, and postvoid
dribbling. Diagnosis of prostate cancer and UTI require further
testing and are less likely causes.
◉ A 70-year-old male reports urinary hesitancy, postvoid dribbling,
and a diminished urine stream. A digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals
an enlarged prostate gland that feels rubbery and smooth. Which
tests will the primary care provider order based on these findings?
a. Bladder scan for postvoid residual
b. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and bladder imaging
c. Urinalysis and serum creatinine
