• NURS 5220 Exam 09/16/2026
NURS 5220 Exam 4 : NURS 5220 Exam Practice
Exam: 150 Questions & Answers:Latest Updated
A+ Guide Solution | Verified Q&A with Detailed
Rationales | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Which of the following patients is MOST at risk for osteoporosis?
a) 50 yof (year old female) with a longstanding history of DM type 2, obesity and daily use of ibuprofen
b) 62 yo postmenopausal female, BMI 24, quit smoking 10 years ago.
P 1
, • NURS 5220 Exam 09/16/2026
c) 72 yof (year old female), BMI 21, history of stage 2 right breast cancer, has been on aromatase inhibitor for 6
years.
d) 42 yof (year old female), BMI 26, personal history of thyroid disease and family history of osteoporosis –
Correct Answer :answer: 72 yof (year old female), BMI 21, history of stage 2 right breast cancer, has been on
aromatase inhibitor for 6 years.
All patients are at risk for osteoporosis- the patient at MOST risk is the underweight postmenopausal female who
has been on an aromatase inhibitor for 6 years.
Bill Brown presents to your clinic after a traumatic fall. His CC is severe left lower leg pain. Which of the following
is the MOST appropriate PE to complete FIRST?
a) Palpate the point of maximal pain.
b) Assess pulses and cap refill in the left foot.
c) Have patient bear weight on left leg.
d) Assess right leg for symmetry.
- Correct Answer :answer: Assess pulses and cap refill in the left foot.
with any injury you must establish have intact "CSMs"- circulation, sensation and movement. Out of the options
given, checking for circulation is the most appropriate -- you need to establish good blood flow.
Which of the following is a positive Finkelstein test?
P 2
, • NURS 5220 Exam 09/16/2026
a) Hips and iliac crests are unequal indicating scoliosis
b) Patient is unable to maintain arm resistance in the abducted position indicating a torn rotator cuff
c) Pain while grasping thumb to palm and moving wrist toward midline indicating de Quervain tenosynovitis
d) Numbness and tingling of the left wrist medial nerve distribution indicating carpal tunnel syndrome –
Correct Answer :answer: Pain while grasping thumb to palm and moving wrist toward midline indicating de
Quervain tenosynovitis
option A- scoliosis test
option B- empty can test for rotator cuff
option C- correct answer
option D- Tinel's test.
The CC is elbow pain for 2 days following a fall. As the APRN you are performing an examination of the affected
joint. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a) It is important to assess the proximal and distal joint of the affected site.
b) Normal range of motion of the elbow includes supination, pronation, rotation and extension.
c) Pain and swelling are the best prognostic indicators for fracture.
d) X-ray of the joint prior to history and PE is indicated to avoid secondary injury. –
Correct Answer :answer: It is important to assess the proximal and distal joint of the affected site.
P 3
, • NURS 5220 Exam 09/16/2026
When assessing a joint- you MUST always assess the joint above and below the affected one- as referred pain or
damage to other joints maybe occurring. You should also assess the opposite joint for symmetry.
Parker, a 3 year old male patient, presents to your clinic today, accompanied by his mother. She reports that she
was called by the daycare center where he fell. Which of the following is the most appropriate tool for you to use
to describe a fracture in this patient?
a) salter-Harris Classification
b) Gleason's Score
c) CURBS criteria
d) Obturator Symptom Index Score –
Correct Answer :answer: Salter-harris classification
When assessing the pediatric population for Fractures- you must consider the Salter Harris classification due to
the potential damage to the growth plates.
You are assessing Mr. K who is complaining of a painful swollen ankle which has increased over the last 2 days.
Upon examination you find him to have the following VS: B/P 110/60 P-92 R-18 T-101. His right ankle is
erythematous, very tender and warm to touch. You're most appropriate first action as an APRN would be:
a) Perform additional tests to rule out septic arthritis.
b) Order Advil 400 mg. every 6 hours, ice packs and an ace bandage for him.
c) Have him elevate the leg and ankle and re-assess him the next morning.
P 4
NURS 5220 Exam 4 : NURS 5220 Exam Practice
Exam: 150 Questions & Answers:Latest Updated
A+ Guide Solution | Verified Q&A with Detailed
Rationales | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Which of the following patients is MOST at risk for osteoporosis?
a) 50 yof (year old female) with a longstanding history of DM type 2, obesity and daily use of ibuprofen
b) 62 yo postmenopausal female, BMI 24, quit smoking 10 years ago.
P 1
, • NURS 5220 Exam 09/16/2026
c) 72 yof (year old female), BMI 21, history of stage 2 right breast cancer, has been on aromatase inhibitor for 6
years.
d) 42 yof (year old female), BMI 26, personal history of thyroid disease and family history of osteoporosis –
Correct Answer :answer: 72 yof (year old female), BMI 21, history of stage 2 right breast cancer, has been on
aromatase inhibitor for 6 years.
All patients are at risk for osteoporosis- the patient at MOST risk is the underweight postmenopausal female who
has been on an aromatase inhibitor for 6 years.
Bill Brown presents to your clinic after a traumatic fall. His CC is severe left lower leg pain. Which of the following
is the MOST appropriate PE to complete FIRST?
a) Palpate the point of maximal pain.
b) Assess pulses and cap refill in the left foot.
c) Have patient bear weight on left leg.
d) Assess right leg for symmetry.
- Correct Answer :answer: Assess pulses and cap refill in the left foot.
with any injury you must establish have intact "CSMs"- circulation, sensation and movement. Out of the options
given, checking for circulation is the most appropriate -- you need to establish good blood flow.
Which of the following is a positive Finkelstein test?
P 2
, • NURS 5220 Exam 09/16/2026
a) Hips and iliac crests are unequal indicating scoliosis
b) Patient is unable to maintain arm resistance in the abducted position indicating a torn rotator cuff
c) Pain while grasping thumb to palm and moving wrist toward midline indicating de Quervain tenosynovitis
d) Numbness and tingling of the left wrist medial nerve distribution indicating carpal tunnel syndrome –
Correct Answer :answer: Pain while grasping thumb to palm and moving wrist toward midline indicating de
Quervain tenosynovitis
option A- scoliosis test
option B- empty can test for rotator cuff
option C- correct answer
option D- Tinel's test.
The CC is elbow pain for 2 days following a fall. As the APRN you are performing an examination of the affected
joint. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a) It is important to assess the proximal and distal joint of the affected site.
b) Normal range of motion of the elbow includes supination, pronation, rotation and extension.
c) Pain and swelling are the best prognostic indicators for fracture.
d) X-ray of the joint prior to history and PE is indicated to avoid secondary injury. –
Correct Answer :answer: It is important to assess the proximal and distal joint of the affected site.
P 3
, • NURS 5220 Exam 09/16/2026
When assessing a joint- you MUST always assess the joint above and below the affected one- as referred pain or
damage to other joints maybe occurring. You should also assess the opposite joint for symmetry.
Parker, a 3 year old male patient, presents to your clinic today, accompanied by his mother. She reports that she
was called by the daycare center where he fell. Which of the following is the most appropriate tool for you to use
to describe a fracture in this patient?
a) salter-Harris Classification
b) Gleason's Score
c) CURBS criteria
d) Obturator Symptom Index Score –
Correct Answer :answer: Salter-harris classification
When assessing the pediatric population for Fractures- you must consider the Salter Harris classification due to
the potential damage to the growth plates.
You are assessing Mr. K who is complaining of a painful swollen ankle which has increased over the last 2 days.
Upon examination you find him to have the following VS: B/P 110/60 P-92 R-18 T-101. His right ankle is
erythematous, very tender and warm to touch. You're most appropriate first action as an APRN would be:
a) Perform additional tests to rule out septic arthritis.
b) Order Advil 400 mg. every 6 hours, ice packs and an ace bandage for him.
c) Have him elevate the leg and ankle and re-assess him the next morning.
P 4
