NSG 3100 EXAM 1 RESOURCES | ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
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Foundations of Nursing Practice and Patient Safety
Q1: A nurse is caring for a patient who has just been admitted to the medical-surgical unit.
According to the nursing process, what is the very first action the nurse should take?
A. Develop a comprehensive plan of care with measurable goals.
B. Implement the prescribed medical interventions immediately.
C. Collect comprehensive assessment data from the patient. [CORRECT]
D. Evaluate the patient's response to the initial nursing interventions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is to collect assessment data first, as the nursing process always
begins with thorough data collection to establish a baseline before any planning or
implementation can safely occur.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to care for a patient diagnosed with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff).
Which infection control measure is most critical for this specific pathogen?
A. Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer before and after room entry.
B. Wearing a fitted N95 respirator upon entering the patient's room.
C. Washing hands with soap and water to physically remove the spores. [CORRECT]
D. Placing the patient in a negative pressure isolation room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because alcohol-based sanitizers do not kill C. diff spores,
making mechanical removal with soap and water the only effective method for hand
hygiene in this scenario.
Q3: An older adult patient with a history of falls is admitted to the unit. Which nursing
intervention is the most appropriate initial action to promote patient safety?
A. Apply bilateral wrist restraints to prevent the patient from getting out of bed.
B. Keep the bed in the lowest position with the wheels locked. [CORRECT]
C. Instruct the patient to call for assistance only during daytime hours.
D. Place a soft floor mat next to the bed without adjusting the bed height.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that keeping the bed low and locked is a
fundamental, least-restrictive safety measure that minimizes the distance and risk of injury
if a fall does occur.
Q4: A patient is scheduled for a surgical procedure, and the surgeon has just explained the
risks and benefits. What is the nurse's primary role regarding the informed consent form?
A. To explain the surgical procedure in detail to ensure the patient understands.
, B. To witness the patient's signature and verify that the consent appears voluntary and
informed. [CORRECT]
C. To obtain the signature if the surgeon is too busy to do it.
D. To decide if the patient is mentally competent to sign the document.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is to witness the signature and verify voluntariness, as it is the
provider's responsibility to explain the procedure, while the nurse's role is strictly to witness
and advocate if the patient seems confused.
Q5: Which piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) must be donned first when
entering a room requiring contact precautions?
A. Gloves
B. Gown [CORRECT]
C. Mask
D. Goggles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that the gown is always donned first to prevent
contamination of the nurse's uniform before gloves and other protective gear are applied.
Q6: A nurse is documenting care in the electronic health record. Which entry is an example
of objective data?
A. The patient states, "My stomach hurts really badly."
B. The patient appears anxious about the upcoming discharge.
C. The patient's abdomen is soft, non-tender, and bowel sounds are active. [CORRECT]
D. The patient seems to be in a lot of pain based on their facial expressions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because objective data consists of measurable, observable
facts, whereas the other options rely on the patient's subjective statements or the nurse's
interpretations.
Q7: A charge nurse is making assignments for the shift. Which task is most appropriate to
delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing the pain level of a patient who just returned from surgery.
B. Teaching a patient how to use an incentive spirometer.
C. Obtaining routine vital signs on a stable patient admitted for observation. [CORRECT]
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a newly administered antihypertensive medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that UAPs can safely perform routine, non-invasive
tasks like vital signs on stable patients, while assessment, teaching, and evaluation remain
within the RN's scope of practice.
Q8: A nurse realizes they just administered the wrong dose of a medication to a patient. The
patient currently has no adverse symptoms. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Document the error in the patient's medical record as a "medication variance."
B. Assess the patient for any potential adverse effects and notify the healthcare provider.
[CORRECT]
C. Fill out an incident report and place it in the patient's chart for legal protection.
| 2026 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT - GALEN Actual Exam 2026/2027 |
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations of Nursing Practice and Patient Safety
Q1: A nurse is caring for a patient who has just been admitted to the medical-surgical unit.
According to the nursing process, what is the very first action the nurse should take?
A. Develop a comprehensive plan of care with measurable goals.
B. Implement the prescribed medical interventions immediately.
C. Collect comprehensive assessment data from the patient. [CORRECT]
D. Evaluate the patient's response to the initial nursing interventions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is to collect assessment data first, as the nursing process always
begins with thorough data collection to establish a baseline before any planning or
implementation can safely occur.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to care for a patient diagnosed with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff).
Which infection control measure is most critical for this specific pathogen?
A. Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer before and after room entry.
B. Wearing a fitted N95 respirator upon entering the patient's room.
C. Washing hands with soap and water to physically remove the spores. [CORRECT]
D. Placing the patient in a negative pressure isolation room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because alcohol-based sanitizers do not kill C. diff spores,
making mechanical removal with soap and water the only effective method for hand
hygiene in this scenario.
Q3: An older adult patient with a history of falls is admitted to the unit. Which nursing
intervention is the most appropriate initial action to promote patient safety?
A. Apply bilateral wrist restraints to prevent the patient from getting out of bed.
B. Keep the bed in the lowest position with the wheels locked. [CORRECT]
C. Instruct the patient to call for assistance only during daytime hours.
D. Place a soft floor mat next to the bed without adjusting the bed height.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that keeping the bed low and locked is a
fundamental, least-restrictive safety measure that minimizes the distance and risk of injury
if a fall does occur.
Q4: A patient is scheduled for a surgical procedure, and the surgeon has just explained the
risks and benefits. What is the nurse's primary role regarding the informed consent form?
A. To explain the surgical procedure in detail to ensure the patient understands.
, B. To witness the patient's signature and verify that the consent appears voluntary and
informed. [CORRECT]
C. To obtain the signature if the surgeon is too busy to do it.
D. To decide if the patient is mentally competent to sign the document.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is to witness the signature and verify voluntariness, as it is the
provider's responsibility to explain the procedure, while the nurse's role is strictly to witness
and advocate if the patient seems confused.
Q5: Which piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) must be donned first when
entering a room requiring contact precautions?
A. Gloves
B. Gown [CORRECT]
C. Mask
D. Goggles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This matches the principle that the gown is always donned first to prevent
contamination of the nurse's uniform before gloves and other protective gear are applied.
Q6: A nurse is documenting care in the electronic health record. Which entry is an example
of objective data?
A. The patient states, "My stomach hurts really badly."
B. The patient appears anxious about the upcoming discharge.
C. The patient's abdomen is soft, non-tender, and bowel sounds are active. [CORRECT]
D. The patient seems to be in a lot of pain based on their facial expressions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This choice is correct because objective data consists of measurable, observable
facts, whereas the other options rely on the patient's subjective statements or the nurse's
interpretations.
Q7: A charge nurse is making assignments for the shift. Which task is most appropriate to
delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing the pain level of a patient who just returned from surgery.
B. Teaching a patient how to use an incentive spirometer.
C. Obtaining routine vital signs on a stable patient admitted for observation. [CORRECT]
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of a newly administered antihypertensive medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This aligns with the principle that UAPs can safely perform routine, non-invasive
tasks like vital signs on stable patients, while assessment, teaching, and evaluation remain
within the RN's scope of practice.
Q8: A nurse realizes they just administered the wrong dose of a medication to a patient. The
patient currently has no adverse symptoms. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Document the error in the patient's medical record as a "medication variance."
B. Assess the patient for any potential adverse effects and notify the healthcare provider.
[CORRECT]
C. Fill out an incident report and place it in the patient's chart for legal protection.
