___________________________________________________________________
Continued Demonstration of
Qualifications (CDQ) Assessment
Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026
Q&A Instant Download Pdf
___________________________________________________________________
1. Which preoperative finding most strongly suggests an increased risk of
difficult mask ventilation?
A. Well-controlled hypertension
B. Obesity with a thick neck and limited mandibular protrusion
C. Mild seasonal allergies
D. Resting heart rate of 62 beats/min
Answer: B. Obesity with a thick neck and limited mandibular protrusion
Rationale: Obesity, increased neck circumference, and reduced mandibular
mobility are recognized predictors of difficult mask ventilation and should
prompt careful airway planning.
2. What is the primary purpose of preoxygenation before induction of general
anesthesia?
A. Reduce gastric acidity
B. Increase hemoglobin concentration
,C. Replace alveolar nitrogen with oxygen and increase oxygen reserve
D. Prevent postoperative nausea
Answer: C. Replace alveolar nitrogen with oxygen and increase oxygen reserve
Rationale: Preoxygenation increases the oxygen reservoir in the lungs, extending
the time before arterial oxygen desaturation during apnea.
3. Which medication is a commonly used induction agent that produces rapid
hypnosis?
A. Ondansetron
B. Furosemide
C. Propofol
D. Neostigmine
Answer: C. Propofol
Rationale: Propofol is an intravenous hypnotic commonly used for induction of
general anesthesia because of its rapid onset and short duration of action.
4. A patient develops severe hypotension immediately after induction. Which
medication is commonly appropriate for treating hypotension associated
with reduced systemic vascular resistance?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Midazolam
C. Ondansetron
D. Sugammadex
Answer: A. Phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine is a predominantly alpha-1 adrenergic agonist that
increases vascular tone and systemic vascular resistance, helping correct
vasodilatory hypotension.
5. Which physiologic change is most characteristic of malignant hyperthermia?
A. Severe hypoglycemia
B. Rapidly increasing carbon dioxide production and muscle rigidity
,C. Progressive bradycardia without metabolic abnormalities
D. Isolated hypertension
Answer: B. Rapidly increasing carbon dioxide production and muscle rigidity
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia causes uncontrolled skeletal-muscle
metabolism, producing increased carbon dioxide production, rigidity, acidosis,
hyperkalemia, and hyperthermia.
6. What is the specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Dantrolene
D. Protamine
Answer: C. Dantrolene
Rationale: Dantrolene reduces calcium release from skeletal-muscle
sarcoplasmic reticulum and is the definitive pharmacologic treatment for
malignant hyperthermia.
7. Which neuromuscular blocker is considered a depolarizing agent?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Cisatracurium
D. Succinylcholine
Answer: D. Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that produces
an initial muscle fasciculation followed by paralysis.
8. Which medication can rapidly reverse the effects of rocuronium?
A. Atropine
B. Naloxone
C. Sugammadex
D. Ephedrine
, Answer: C. Sugammadex
Rationale: Sugammadex encapsulates steroidal neuromuscular blockers such as
rocuronium and vecuronium, producing rapid reversal of their effects.
9. Which monitor is most useful for confirming effective ventilation during
general anesthesia?
A. Temperature probe
B. End-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring
C. Bispectral index alone
D. Peripheral nerve stimulator alone
Answer: B. End-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring
Rationale: Continuous capnography provides real-time information about
ventilation and is an important method for confirming airway and ventilatory
function.
10.What does pulse oximetry primarily measure?
A. Ventilation
B. Cardiac output
C. Hemoglobin oxygen saturation
D. Serum carbon dioxide concentration
Answer: C. Hemoglobin oxygen saturation
Rationale: Pulse oximetry estimates arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation,
although it does not directly measure ventilation or carbon dioxide elimination.
11.Which ECG finding is most consistent with hyperkalemia?
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Peaked T waves
C. Prominent U waves
D. Diffuse ST depression only
Answer: B. Peaked T waves
Continued Demonstration of
Qualifications (CDQ) Assessment
Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026
Q&A Instant Download Pdf
___________________________________________________________________
1. Which preoperative finding most strongly suggests an increased risk of
difficult mask ventilation?
A. Well-controlled hypertension
B. Obesity with a thick neck and limited mandibular protrusion
C. Mild seasonal allergies
D. Resting heart rate of 62 beats/min
Answer: B. Obesity with a thick neck and limited mandibular protrusion
Rationale: Obesity, increased neck circumference, and reduced mandibular
mobility are recognized predictors of difficult mask ventilation and should
prompt careful airway planning.
2. What is the primary purpose of preoxygenation before induction of general
anesthesia?
A. Reduce gastric acidity
B. Increase hemoglobin concentration
,C. Replace alveolar nitrogen with oxygen and increase oxygen reserve
D. Prevent postoperative nausea
Answer: C. Replace alveolar nitrogen with oxygen and increase oxygen reserve
Rationale: Preoxygenation increases the oxygen reservoir in the lungs, extending
the time before arterial oxygen desaturation during apnea.
3. Which medication is a commonly used induction agent that produces rapid
hypnosis?
A. Ondansetron
B. Furosemide
C. Propofol
D. Neostigmine
Answer: C. Propofol
Rationale: Propofol is an intravenous hypnotic commonly used for induction of
general anesthesia because of its rapid onset and short duration of action.
4. A patient develops severe hypotension immediately after induction. Which
medication is commonly appropriate for treating hypotension associated
with reduced systemic vascular resistance?
A. Phenylephrine
B. Midazolam
C. Ondansetron
D. Sugammadex
Answer: A. Phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine is a predominantly alpha-1 adrenergic agonist that
increases vascular tone and systemic vascular resistance, helping correct
vasodilatory hypotension.
5. Which physiologic change is most characteristic of malignant hyperthermia?
A. Severe hypoglycemia
B. Rapidly increasing carbon dioxide production and muscle rigidity
,C. Progressive bradycardia without metabolic abnormalities
D. Isolated hypertension
Answer: B. Rapidly increasing carbon dioxide production and muscle rigidity
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia causes uncontrolled skeletal-muscle
metabolism, producing increased carbon dioxide production, rigidity, acidosis,
hyperkalemia, and hyperthermia.
6. What is the specific treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Dantrolene
D. Protamine
Answer: C. Dantrolene
Rationale: Dantrolene reduces calcium release from skeletal-muscle
sarcoplasmic reticulum and is the definitive pharmacologic treatment for
malignant hyperthermia.
7. Which neuromuscular blocker is considered a depolarizing agent?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Cisatracurium
D. Succinylcholine
Answer: D. Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that produces
an initial muscle fasciculation followed by paralysis.
8. Which medication can rapidly reverse the effects of rocuronium?
A. Atropine
B. Naloxone
C. Sugammadex
D. Ephedrine
, Answer: C. Sugammadex
Rationale: Sugammadex encapsulates steroidal neuromuscular blockers such as
rocuronium and vecuronium, producing rapid reversal of their effects.
9. Which monitor is most useful for confirming effective ventilation during
general anesthesia?
A. Temperature probe
B. End-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring
C. Bispectral index alone
D. Peripheral nerve stimulator alone
Answer: B. End-tidal carbon dioxide monitoring
Rationale: Continuous capnography provides real-time information about
ventilation and is an important method for confirming airway and ventilatory
function.
10.What does pulse oximetry primarily measure?
A. Ventilation
B. Cardiac output
C. Hemoglobin oxygen saturation
D. Serum carbon dioxide concentration
Answer: C. Hemoglobin oxygen saturation
Rationale: Pulse oximetry estimates arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation,
although it does not directly measure ventilation or carbon dioxide elimination.
11.Which ECG finding is most consistent with hyperkalemia?
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Peaked T waves
C. Prominent U waves
D. Diffuse ST depression only
Answer: B. Peaked T waves
