NUR 6001 EXAM 3 ORIGINALACTUAL EXAM
[QUESTION 1- 200] AND ANSWERS UPDATED
2026/2027| 100% VERIFIED|DETAILED RATIONALES –
PASS GUARANTEED A+ GRADED |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD
INTRODUCTION
NUR 6001 is Advanced Health Assessment of the Adult Client, a graduate-level nursing
course listed in William Paterson University's BSN-DNP curriculum. The course prepares
advanced-practice nursing students to perform comprehensive and focused assessments of adult
clients and integrate history, physical-examination findings, clinical reasoning, and diagnostic
considerations. (William Paterson University)
The course is particularly relevant to graduate nursing students preparing for advanced-practice
roles such as family or adult-gerontology nurse practitioner practice. Exam 3 study materials
publicly associated with NUR 6001 emphasize application of assessment findings rather than
simple memorization, including neurological examination, cranial nerves, mental status, gait and
reflexes, musculoskeletal assessment, breast assessment, women's health, and genitourinary
assessment. (Docsity)
Advanced health-assessment competence is important because the APN must recognize normal
versus abnormal findings, construct clinically appropriate differentials, identify findings
requiring urgent evaluation, and determine when additional diagnostic assessment is warranted.
Exam-style preparation therefore benefits from integrating anatomy, examination technique,
pathophysiology, and clinical reasoning.
Important note: Publicly accessible sources reviewed for this practice set do not establish an
official 2026/2027 Exam 3 question count, duration, or complete university-issued blueprint.
Accordingly, the content-area distribution below is an original practice blueprint, not a
representation of a confidential or unpublished university examination blueprint. Publicly
available Exam 3 materials do consistently identify neurological, musculoskeletal,
breast/women's-health, and related advanced-assessment topics. (Stuvia)
Core Domains Tested in NUR 6001 Exam 3
Neurological assessment and localization
Cranial nerve assessment
Mental-status and cognitive assessment
Motor, sensory, coordination, gait, and reflex examination
Musculoskeletal and orthopedic assessment
Breast and axillary assessment
Women's health and reproductive assessment
, Genitourinary and male reproductive assessment
Thyroid, skin, and regional physical assessment
Clinical reasoning, differential diagnosis, and interpretation of abnormal findings
Content Area Table
% of Approx. # of
Content Domain Key Topics Covered
Exam Questions
Mental status, localization,
Neurological Assessment 18% 36 motor/sensory findings, coordination,
gait
CN I–XII, focal deficits, bedside
Cranial Nerves 10% 20
testing
Reflexes & Cerebellar DTRs, plantar response, Romberg,
8% 16
Function cerebellar testing
ROM, strength, joints, orthopedic
Musculoskeletal Assessment 16% 32
maneuvers
Breast & Axillary Masses, nipple findings, lymph nodes,
14% 28
Assessment diagnostic reasoning
Women's/Reproductive Pelvic findings, menstrual history,
12% 24
Health pregnancy-related assessment
Prostate, urinary symptoms, genital
Genitourinary/Male Health 8% 16
findings
Thyroid, Skin & Regional Thyroid nodules, skin findings,
6% 12
Assessment regional examination
Differential diagnosis, prioritization,
Integrated Clinical Reasoning 8% 16
diagnostic evaluation
Integrated advanced health
Total 100% 200
assessment
QUESTIONS 1-200
Q1: A 32-year-old patient reports progressively worsening difficulty maintaining balance,
especially when walking in the dark. On examination, gait is broad-based, but finger-to-
nose testing is accurate. Romberg testing produces marked swaying after the patient's eyes
are closed. Which system is most likely contributing to the abnormality?
A) Cerebellar hemisphere
B) Proprioceptive pathway
C) Basal ganglia
D) Frontal motor cortex
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Romberg with worsening balance after visual input is removed suggests
,impaired proprioception or vestibular input. Cerebellar dysfunction generally causes gait and
coordination abnormalities that remain evident with the eyes open. Basal-ganglia disease
produces movement abnormalities such as rigidity or bradykinesia, while frontal cortical lesions
may produce weakness or higher-order deficits.
Q2: During examination, a patient accurately identifies a key placed in the right hand but
cannot identify it when placed in the left hand with the patient's eyes closed. Primary
sensation is intact bilaterally. Which cortical function is impaired?
A) Graphesthesia
B) Two-point discrimination
C) Stereognosis
D) Extinction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stereognosis is the ability to identify a familiar object by touch when primary
sensation is intact. Graphesthesia involves identifying a number or letter traced on the skin.
Two-point discrimination tests the ability to distinguish two simultaneous stimuli, whereas
extinction evaluates cortical sensory processing when bilateral simultaneous stimulation is
presented.
Q3: A patient with sudden right-sided weakness also has expressive aphasia. Which
vascular territory should be strongly considered during localization?
A) Right posterior cerebral artery
B) Left middle cerebral artery
C) Right anterior cerebral artery
D) Left posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The left middle cerebral artery supplies dominant hemispheric regions involved in
language and large portions of the contralateral face and upper extremity motor cortex. A
dominant-hemisphere MCA event can therefore produce right-sided weakness with aphasia. The
other territories do not best explain this combination.
Q4: A patient has difficulty performing rapid alternating hand movements and
demonstrates intention tremor. Which structure is most likely involved?
A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Cerebellum
D) Occipital cortex
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dysdiadochokinesia and intention tremor are classic cerebellar findings. The
thalamus is primarily involved in sensory integration and motor circuitry, the hypothalamus
regulates autonomic and endocrine functions, and the occipital cortex is primarily responsible
for visual processing.
Q5: During neurological examination, a patient demonstrates a positive pronator drift on
the right. What does this finding most strongly suggest?
A) Isolated peripheral sensory neuropathy
, B) Upper motor neuron weakness
C) Cerebellar tremor
D) Vestibular dysfunction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pronator drift is a sensitive bedside test for subtle upper motor neuron weakness. A
patient with corticospinal tract dysfunction may experience downward pronation of the affected
arm. Cerebellar disease more typically causes dysmetria or intention tremor, while vestibular
dysfunction produces imbalance or vertigo.
Q6: A patient has a unilateral facial droop involving the forehead, eye closure, and lower
face on the same side. Which finding best supports a peripheral facial nerve lesion?
A) Contralateral lower facial weakness with preserved forehead movement
B) Ipsilateral weakness of the entire face
C) Bilateral inability to raise the eyebrows
D) Isolated loss of facial sensation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A peripheral CN VII lesion affects the upper and lower facial muscles ipsilaterally,
producing inability to wrinkle the forehead, close the eye, and smile symmetrically. A central
corticobulbar lesion typically spares the forehead because of bilateral cortical innervation.
Facial sensation is primarily mediated by CN V.
Q7: A patient reports diplopia that worsens when looking downward and inward.
Examination suggests weakness of the superior oblique muscle. Which cranial nerve is
involved?
A) CN III
B) CN IV
C) CN V
D) CN VI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The trochlear nerve, CN IV, innervates the superior oblique muscle. CN III innervates
most extraocular muscles, CN VI innervates the lateral rectus, and CN V primarily provides
facial sensation and motor innervation to mastication.
Q8: A patient has loss of the corneal reflex when the right cornea is lightly touched, but
blinking occurs when the left cornea is stimulated. Which finding would help distinguish an
afferent from an efferent defect?
A) Testing hearing bilaterally
B) Testing shoulder shrug
C) Observing both eyes while stimulating each cornea separately
D) Testing tongue protrusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The afferent limb of the corneal reflex is CN V1, while the efferent limb is CN VII. If
stimulation of one cornea fails to produce bilateral blinking, the pattern can distinguish whether
sensory input or facial motor output is impaired. The other maneuvers evaluate different cranial
nerves.
[QUESTION 1- 200] AND ANSWERS UPDATED
2026/2027| 100% VERIFIED|DETAILED RATIONALES –
PASS GUARANTEED A+ GRADED |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD
INTRODUCTION
NUR 6001 is Advanced Health Assessment of the Adult Client, a graduate-level nursing
course listed in William Paterson University's BSN-DNP curriculum. The course prepares
advanced-practice nursing students to perform comprehensive and focused assessments of adult
clients and integrate history, physical-examination findings, clinical reasoning, and diagnostic
considerations. (William Paterson University)
The course is particularly relevant to graduate nursing students preparing for advanced-practice
roles such as family or adult-gerontology nurse practitioner practice. Exam 3 study materials
publicly associated with NUR 6001 emphasize application of assessment findings rather than
simple memorization, including neurological examination, cranial nerves, mental status, gait and
reflexes, musculoskeletal assessment, breast assessment, women's health, and genitourinary
assessment. (Docsity)
Advanced health-assessment competence is important because the APN must recognize normal
versus abnormal findings, construct clinically appropriate differentials, identify findings
requiring urgent evaluation, and determine when additional diagnostic assessment is warranted.
Exam-style preparation therefore benefits from integrating anatomy, examination technique,
pathophysiology, and clinical reasoning.
Important note: Publicly accessible sources reviewed for this practice set do not establish an
official 2026/2027 Exam 3 question count, duration, or complete university-issued blueprint.
Accordingly, the content-area distribution below is an original practice blueprint, not a
representation of a confidential or unpublished university examination blueprint. Publicly
available Exam 3 materials do consistently identify neurological, musculoskeletal,
breast/women's-health, and related advanced-assessment topics. (Stuvia)
Core Domains Tested in NUR 6001 Exam 3
Neurological assessment and localization
Cranial nerve assessment
Mental-status and cognitive assessment
Motor, sensory, coordination, gait, and reflex examination
Musculoskeletal and orthopedic assessment
Breast and axillary assessment
Women's health and reproductive assessment
, Genitourinary and male reproductive assessment
Thyroid, skin, and regional physical assessment
Clinical reasoning, differential diagnosis, and interpretation of abnormal findings
Content Area Table
% of Approx. # of
Content Domain Key Topics Covered
Exam Questions
Mental status, localization,
Neurological Assessment 18% 36 motor/sensory findings, coordination,
gait
CN I–XII, focal deficits, bedside
Cranial Nerves 10% 20
testing
Reflexes & Cerebellar DTRs, plantar response, Romberg,
8% 16
Function cerebellar testing
ROM, strength, joints, orthopedic
Musculoskeletal Assessment 16% 32
maneuvers
Breast & Axillary Masses, nipple findings, lymph nodes,
14% 28
Assessment diagnostic reasoning
Women's/Reproductive Pelvic findings, menstrual history,
12% 24
Health pregnancy-related assessment
Prostate, urinary symptoms, genital
Genitourinary/Male Health 8% 16
findings
Thyroid, Skin & Regional Thyroid nodules, skin findings,
6% 12
Assessment regional examination
Differential diagnosis, prioritization,
Integrated Clinical Reasoning 8% 16
diagnostic evaluation
Integrated advanced health
Total 100% 200
assessment
QUESTIONS 1-200
Q1: A 32-year-old patient reports progressively worsening difficulty maintaining balance,
especially when walking in the dark. On examination, gait is broad-based, but finger-to-
nose testing is accurate. Romberg testing produces marked swaying after the patient's eyes
are closed. Which system is most likely contributing to the abnormality?
A) Cerebellar hemisphere
B) Proprioceptive pathway
C) Basal ganglia
D) Frontal motor cortex
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Romberg with worsening balance after visual input is removed suggests
,impaired proprioception or vestibular input. Cerebellar dysfunction generally causes gait and
coordination abnormalities that remain evident with the eyes open. Basal-ganglia disease
produces movement abnormalities such as rigidity or bradykinesia, while frontal cortical lesions
may produce weakness or higher-order deficits.
Q2: During examination, a patient accurately identifies a key placed in the right hand but
cannot identify it when placed in the left hand with the patient's eyes closed. Primary
sensation is intact bilaterally. Which cortical function is impaired?
A) Graphesthesia
B) Two-point discrimination
C) Stereognosis
D) Extinction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stereognosis is the ability to identify a familiar object by touch when primary
sensation is intact. Graphesthesia involves identifying a number or letter traced on the skin.
Two-point discrimination tests the ability to distinguish two simultaneous stimuli, whereas
extinction evaluates cortical sensory processing when bilateral simultaneous stimulation is
presented.
Q3: A patient with sudden right-sided weakness also has expressive aphasia. Which
vascular territory should be strongly considered during localization?
A) Right posterior cerebral artery
B) Left middle cerebral artery
C) Right anterior cerebral artery
D) Left posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The left middle cerebral artery supplies dominant hemispheric regions involved in
language and large portions of the contralateral face and upper extremity motor cortex. A
dominant-hemisphere MCA event can therefore produce right-sided weakness with aphasia. The
other territories do not best explain this combination.
Q4: A patient has difficulty performing rapid alternating hand movements and
demonstrates intention tremor. Which structure is most likely involved?
A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Cerebellum
D) Occipital cortex
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dysdiadochokinesia and intention tremor are classic cerebellar findings. The
thalamus is primarily involved in sensory integration and motor circuitry, the hypothalamus
regulates autonomic and endocrine functions, and the occipital cortex is primarily responsible
for visual processing.
Q5: During neurological examination, a patient demonstrates a positive pronator drift on
the right. What does this finding most strongly suggest?
A) Isolated peripheral sensory neuropathy
, B) Upper motor neuron weakness
C) Cerebellar tremor
D) Vestibular dysfunction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pronator drift is a sensitive bedside test for subtle upper motor neuron weakness. A
patient with corticospinal tract dysfunction may experience downward pronation of the affected
arm. Cerebellar disease more typically causes dysmetria or intention tremor, while vestibular
dysfunction produces imbalance or vertigo.
Q6: A patient has a unilateral facial droop involving the forehead, eye closure, and lower
face on the same side. Which finding best supports a peripheral facial nerve lesion?
A) Contralateral lower facial weakness with preserved forehead movement
B) Ipsilateral weakness of the entire face
C) Bilateral inability to raise the eyebrows
D) Isolated loss of facial sensation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A peripheral CN VII lesion affects the upper and lower facial muscles ipsilaterally,
producing inability to wrinkle the forehead, close the eye, and smile symmetrically. A central
corticobulbar lesion typically spares the forehead because of bilateral cortical innervation.
Facial sensation is primarily mediated by CN V.
Q7: A patient reports diplopia that worsens when looking downward and inward.
Examination suggests weakness of the superior oblique muscle. Which cranial nerve is
involved?
A) CN III
B) CN IV
C) CN V
D) CN VI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The trochlear nerve, CN IV, innervates the superior oblique muscle. CN III innervates
most extraocular muscles, CN VI innervates the lateral rectus, and CN V primarily provides
facial sensation and motor innervation to mastication.
Q8: A patient has loss of the corneal reflex when the right cornea is lightly touched, but
blinking occurs when the left cornea is stimulated. Which finding would help distinguish an
afferent from an efferent defect?
A) Testing hearing bilaterally
B) Testing shoulder shrug
C) Observing both eyes while stimulating each cornea separately
D) Testing tongue protrusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The afferent limb of the corneal reflex is CN V1, while the efferent limb is CN VII. If
stimulation of one cornea fails to produce bilateral blinking, the pattern can distinguish whether
sensory input or facial motor output is impaired. The other maneuvers evaluate different cranial
nerves.
