NUR 6001 FINAL EXAM 3 ACTUAL EXAM [QUESTION
1- 200] AND ANSWERS UPDATED 2026/2027| 100%
VERIFIED|DETAILED RATIONALES –PASS
GUARANTEED A+ GRADED |INSTANT DOWNLOAD
INTRODUCTION
NUR 6001 is Advanced Health Assessment, a graduate-level nursing course at William
Paterson University that develops advanced competency in comprehensive history taking,
physical examination, clinical reasoning, interpretation of findings, and health-promotion
planning. The published course materials identify NUR 6001 as a 3-credit graduate nursing
course and emphasize assessment of young adults, adults, and older adults.
The course is designed for graduate nursing students preparing for advanced nursing practice.
Major learning outcomes include integrating culture, age, developmental stage, and
communication into assessment; performing inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation;
recognizing normal and abnormal findings; analyzing assessment data; and developing screening
and health-risk-reduction plans.
Advanced health-assessment competence is important because advanced practice nurses must
distinguish expected variations from clinically significant abnormalities, recognize potentially
urgent findings, construct appropriate differentials, and communicate findings accurately. The
course also emphasizes documentation, technology-supported data collection, health promotion,
and assessment of common syndromes affecting older adults.
The publicly available course syllabus identifies three examinations, each accounting for 20% of
the course grade, but it does not establish a publicly verifiable universal number of questions or
a fixed duration for a specific 2026/2027 Final Exam 3. Accordingly, the 200 questions below
are an original, exam-level practice bank, not a reproduction or claim of access to a live
university examination.
Core Domains Tested in NUR 6001
Advanced history taking and clinical communication
General and geriatric assessment
Mental status and neurologic examination
Cranial nerve assessment
Motor, sensory, reflex, coordination, and gait assessment
Musculoskeletal and orthopedic examination
Cardiovascular assessment
, Respiratory assessment
Abdominal and gastrointestinal assessment
Genitourinary and reproductive health assessment
Health promotion, screening, and risk assessment
Clinical documentation and differential diagnosis
CONTENT AREA TABLE
% of Approx. # of
Content Domain Key Topics Covered
Exam Questions
History, Communication & HPI, OPQRST, risk assessment,
10% 20
Clinical Reasoning communication, documentation
General & Older-Adult Aging, functional status, falls,
8% 16
Assessment nutrition, frailty
Mental Status & Neurologic Cognition, cranial nerves, motor,
18% 36
Assessment sensory, reflexes, gait
ROM, strength, arthritis, orthopedic
Musculoskeletal Assessment 12% 24
maneuvers
Pulses, murmurs, JVP, edema,
Cardiovascular Assessment 12% 24
peripheral vascular findings
Inspection, percussion, auscultation,
Respiratory Assessment 10% 20
abnormal sounds
Inspection, auscultation, percussion,
Abdominal/GI Assessment 12% 24
palpation, acute abdomen
GU/Reproductive & Pelvic, breast, prostate, testicular
8% 16
Women's/Men's Health assessment
Health Promotion &
5% 10 Prevention, screening, risk reduction
Screening
Integrated Clinical Differential diagnosis, prioritization,
5% 10
Assessment synthesis of findings
Comprehensive advanced
Total 100% 200
assessment
QUESTIONS 1–200
Q1: A 32-year-old patient reports several months of progressive unsteadiness, difficulty
performing rapid alternating movements, and veering toward the right while walking.
Strength is 5/5 bilaterally, but finger-to-nose testing is dysmetric on the right. Which
neurologic structure is most likely involved?
A) Left frontal motor cortex
B) Right cerebellar hemisphere
,C) Left thalamus
D) Right corticospinal tract
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The cerebellum coordinates movement, balance, timing, and precision. Ipsilateral
limb dysmetria and gait deviation toward the affected side strongly suggest a cerebellar
hemisphere lesion. A corticospinal lesion would more typically produce weakness and upper
motor-neuron findings. A frontal cortical lesion would produce different focal deficits, while a
thalamic lesion more commonly causes sensory abnormalities.
Q2: During cranial nerve testing, a patient has asymmetric smiling, inability to tightly close
the right eye, and decreased ability to puff out the right cheek. Which deficit is most likely
present?
A) Right CN VII motor dysfunction
B) Right CN V sensory dysfunction
C) Left CN XII dysfunction
D) Right CN XI dysfunction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CN VII controls the muscles of facial expression, including eye closure, smiling,
eyebrow movement, and cheek puffing. The findings indicate right facial motor weakness. CN V
provides facial sensation and muscles of mastication, CN XII controls tongue movement, and CN
XI controls sternocleidomastoid and trapezius function.
Q3: An 81-year-old patient takes several medications and reports two falls during the past
month. Which assessment should receive the highest priority?
A) Remote memory
B) Visual acuity only
C) Medication review, orthostatic vital signs, gait, and balance
D) Assessment of superficial abdominal reflexes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Recurrent falls in an older adult require multifactorial assessment. Medication
adverse effects, orthostatic hypotension, impaired vision, gait abnormalities, weakness, and
environmental factors are common contributors. A focused fall evaluation should therefore
include medications, orthostatic measurements, gait, balance, neurologic status, and sensory
function.
Q4: A patient reports sudden difficulty speaking and weakness of the right arm and face
that began 20 minutes ago. What is the most appropriate assessment priority?
A) Complete musculoskeletal examination
B) Detailed dietary history
, C) Immediate focused neurologic assessment and emergency stroke evaluation
D) Routine annual screening examination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden focal neurologic deficits are concerning for an acute cerebrovascular event.
The priority is rapid neurologic assessment and emergency evaluation because time-sensitive
interventions may be indicated. Routine examination and preventive assessments must not delay
evaluation of a potentially life-threatening neurologic event.
Q5: During mental-status assessment, a patient correctly identifies the month, location, and
current president but cannot recall three words after five minutes. Which additional
assessment is most useful?
A) Babinski response
B) Romberg test
C) Further evaluation of short-term memory and functional cognitive status
D) Achilles reflex
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delayed recall is a component of cognitive assessment. A single failed recall task
does not establish dementia. The examiner should evaluate attention, registration, delayed
recall, executive function, language, and functional status to determine whether impairment is
clinically significant.
Q6: A patient with Parkinson disease demonstrates a short-stepped gait, reduced arm
swing, and difficulty initiating movement. Which finding would most strongly support
Parkinsonism?
A) Wide-based ataxic gait
B) High-steppage gait
C) Bradykinesia with rigidity and resting tremor
D) Flaccid paralysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Parkinsonism classically involves bradykinesia plus features such as rigidity, resting
tremor, and postural instability. A wide-based gait suggests cerebellar dysfunction, high-
steppage gait suggests peripheral neuropathy or foot drop, and flaccid paralysis is associated
with lower motor-neuron or peripheral motor dysfunction.
Q7: During assessment of a patient with headache and fever, the examiner flexes the
patient's hip and knee to 90 degrees and then attempts to extend the knee. Pain and
resistance occur. Which sign is being assessed?
A) Brudzinski sign
B) Kernig sign
1- 200] AND ANSWERS UPDATED 2026/2027| 100%
VERIFIED|DETAILED RATIONALES –PASS
GUARANTEED A+ GRADED |INSTANT DOWNLOAD
INTRODUCTION
NUR 6001 is Advanced Health Assessment, a graduate-level nursing course at William
Paterson University that develops advanced competency in comprehensive history taking,
physical examination, clinical reasoning, interpretation of findings, and health-promotion
planning. The published course materials identify NUR 6001 as a 3-credit graduate nursing
course and emphasize assessment of young adults, adults, and older adults.
The course is designed for graduate nursing students preparing for advanced nursing practice.
Major learning outcomes include integrating culture, age, developmental stage, and
communication into assessment; performing inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation;
recognizing normal and abnormal findings; analyzing assessment data; and developing screening
and health-risk-reduction plans.
Advanced health-assessment competence is important because advanced practice nurses must
distinguish expected variations from clinically significant abnormalities, recognize potentially
urgent findings, construct appropriate differentials, and communicate findings accurately. The
course also emphasizes documentation, technology-supported data collection, health promotion,
and assessment of common syndromes affecting older adults.
The publicly available course syllabus identifies three examinations, each accounting for 20% of
the course grade, but it does not establish a publicly verifiable universal number of questions or
a fixed duration for a specific 2026/2027 Final Exam 3. Accordingly, the 200 questions below
are an original, exam-level practice bank, not a reproduction or claim of access to a live
university examination.
Core Domains Tested in NUR 6001
Advanced history taking and clinical communication
General and geriatric assessment
Mental status and neurologic examination
Cranial nerve assessment
Motor, sensory, reflex, coordination, and gait assessment
Musculoskeletal and orthopedic examination
Cardiovascular assessment
, Respiratory assessment
Abdominal and gastrointestinal assessment
Genitourinary and reproductive health assessment
Health promotion, screening, and risk assessment
Clinical documentation and differential diagnosis
CONTENT AREA TABLE
% of Approx. # of
Content Domain Key Topics Covered
Exam Questions
History, Communication & HPI, OPQRST, risk assessment,
10% 20
Clinical Reasoning communication, documentation
General & Older-Adult Aging, functional status, falls,
8% 16
Assessment nutrition, frailty
Mental Status & Neurologic Cognition, cranial nerves, motor,
18% 36
Assessment sensory, reflexes, gait
ROM, strength, arthritis, orthopedic
Musculoskeletal Assessment 12% 24
maneuvers
Pulses, murmurs, JVP, edema,
Cardiovascular Assessment 12% 24
peripheral vascular findings
Inspection, percussion, auscultation,
Respiratory Assessment 10% 20
abnormal sounds
Inspection, auscultation, percussion,
Abdominal/GI Assessment 12% 24
palpation, acute abdomen
GU/Reproductive & Pelvic, breast, prostate, testicular
8% 16
Women's/Men's Health assessment
Health Promotion &
5% 10 Prevention, screening, risk reduction
Screening
Integrated Clinical Differential diagnosis, prioritization,
5% 10
Assessment synthesis of findings
Comprehensive advanced
Total 100% 200
assessment
QUESTIONS 1–200
Q1: A 32-year-old patient reports several months of progressive unsteadiness, difficulty
performing rapid alternating movements, and veering toward the right while walking.
Strength is 5/5 bilaterally, but finger-to-nose testing is dysmetric on the right. Which
neurologic structure is most likely involved?
A) Left frontal motor cortex
B) Right cerebellar hemisphere
,C) Left thalamus
D) Right corticospinal tract
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The cerebellum coordinates movement, balance, timing, and precision. Ipsilateral
limb dysmetria and gait deviation toward the affected side strongly suggest a cerebellar
hemisphere lesion. A corticospinal lesion would more typically produce weakness and upper
motor-neuron findings. A frontal cortical lesion would produce different focal deficits, while a
thalamic lesion more commonly causes sensory abnormalities.
Q2: During cranial nerve testing, a patient has asymmetric smiling, inability to tightly close
the right eye, and decreased ability to puff out the right cheek. Which deficit is most likely
present?
A) Right CN VII motor dysfunction
B) Right CN V sensory dysfunction
C) Left CN XII dysfunction
D) Right CN XI dysfunction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CN VII controls the muscles of facial expression, including eye closure, smiling,
eyebrow movement, and cheek puffing. The findings indicate right facial motor weakness. CN V
provides facial sensation and muscles of mastication, CN XII controls tongue movement, and CN
XI controls sternocleidomastoid and trapezius function.
Q3: An 81-year-old patient takes several medications and reports two falls during the past
month. Which assessment should receive the highest priority?
A) Remote memory
B) Visual acuity only
C) Medication review, orthostatic vital signs, gait, and balance
D) Assessment of superficial abdominal reflexes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Recurrent falls in an older adult require multifactorial assessment. Medication
adverse effects, orthostatic hypotension, impaired vision, gait abnormalities, weakness, and
environmental factors are common contributors. A focused fall evaluation should therefore
include medications, orthostatic measurements, gait, balance, neurologic status, and sensory
function.
Q4: A patient reports sudden difficulty speaking and weakness of the right arm and face
that began 20 minutes ago. What is the most appropriate assessment priority?
A) Complete musculoskeletal examination
B) Detailed dietary history
, C) Immediate focused neurologic assessment and emergency stroke evaluation
D) Routine annual screening examination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden focal neurologic deficits are concerning for an acute cerebrovascular event.
The priority is rapid neurologic assessment and emergency evaluation because time-sensitive
interventions may be indicated. Routine examination and preventive assessments must not delay
evaluation of a potentially life-threatening neurologic event.
Q5: During mental-status assessment, a patient correctly identifies the month, location, and
current president but cannot recall three words after five minutes. Which additional
assessment is most useful?
A) Babinski response
B) Romberg test
C) Further evaluation of short-term memory and functional cognitive status
D) Achilles reflex
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delayed recall is a component of cognitive assessment. A single failed recall task
does not establish dementia. The examiner should evaluate attention, registration, delayed
recall, executive function, language, and functional status to determine whether impairment is
clinically significant.
Q6: A patient with Parkinson disease demonstrates a short-stepped gait, reduced arm
swing, and difficulty initiating movement. Which finding would most strongly support
Parkinsonism?
A) Wide-based ataxic gait
B) High-steppage gait
C) Bradykinesia with rigidity and resting tremor
D) Flaccid paralysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Parkinsonism classically involves bradykinesia plus features such as rigidity, resting
tremor, and postural instability. A wide-based gait suggests cerebellar dysfunction, high-
steppage gait suggests peripheral neuropathy or foot drop, and flaccid paralysis is associated
with lower motor-neuron or peripheral motor dysfunction.
Q7: During assessment of a patient with headache and fever, the examiner flexes the
patient's hip and knee to 90 degrees and then attempts to extend the knee. Pain and
resistance occur. Which sign is being assessed?
A) Brudzinski sign
B) Kernig sign
