MICHIGAN PHYSICAL THERAPIST LICENSE PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF]
– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
Core Domains
1. Musculoskeletal Physical Therapy
2. Neuromuscular Physical Therapy
3. Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
4. Integumentary Physical Therapy
5. Pediatric and Geriatric Physical Therapy
6. Legal, Ethical, and Regulatory Standards
7. Professional Practice and Documentation
8. Safety, Infection Control, and Emergency Procedures
9. Biomechanics, Kinesiology, and Foundational Theory
10. Clinical Reasoning and Evidence-Based Practice
Introduction
This comprehensive assessment is designed to evaluate the knowledge, clinical reasoning, and
professional judgment required for entry-level physical therapist practice. It assesses foundational
theory, applied professional knowledge, technical concepts, regulatory and legal compliance,
ethics, and safety responsibilities. The exam employs a multiple-choice and scenario-based
structure to mirror real-world clinical decision-making. Emphasis is placed on practical
application, interpretation, analysis, and critical thinking. Candidates must demonstrate
competency across musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, cardiovascular, pulmonary, integumentary,
pediatric, and geriatric domains while adhering to professional standards and evidence-based
practice.
SECTION ONE – QUESTIONS 1–100
,Question 1
A physical therapist is evaluating a patient with a suspected anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
tear. Which special test is most commonly used to assess for this injury?
A. McMurray test
B. Lachman test
C. Apprehension test
D. Thomas test
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: The Lachman test is highly sensitive and specific for assessing ACL integrity. It
is performed with the knee flexed at 20-30 degrees, and an anterior translation of the tibia
relative to the femur indicates a positive test.
Question 2
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is participating in an exercise
program. Which of the following is the most appropriate intensity for aerobic training?
A. 40-60% of maximal heart rate
B. 60-80% of maximal heart rate
C. 80-90% of maximal heart rate
D. 90-100% of maximal heart rate
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: For patients with COPD, moderate-intensity aerobic exercise at 60-80% of
maximal heart rate is generally recommended and safe, often using the Borg Rating of
Perceived Exertion (RPE) scale of 4-6.
Question 3
A physical therapist is treating a patient with a Stage II pressure ulcer on the sacrum. Which
intervention is contraindicated?
A. Position changes every 2 hours
B. Application of a hydrocolloid dressing
C. Massage directly over the ulcer
D. Using a pressure-redistributing mattress
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: Direct massage over a pressure ulcer can cause further tissue damage and
should be avoided. Positioning, appropriate dressings, and pressure-redistributing surfaces are
standard care.
,Question 4
Which of the following best describes the principle of "informed consent" in physical therapy
practice?
A. The therapist decides the plan of care without patient input.
B. The patient agrees to treatment after being fully informed of risks, benefits, and alternatives.
C. The patient signs a waiver releasing the therapist from all liability.
D. The therapist obtains consent from the patient's family only.
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Informed consent requires that the patient voluntarily agrees to treatment
after receiving and understanding information about the nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives
of the proposed intervention.
Question 5
A physical therapist is assessing a patient's gait. The patient's affected leg circumducts during
the swing phase. This is most likely due to:
A. Foot drop
B. Hip flexion contracture
C. Knee flexion contracture
D. Spasticity of the hip adductors
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 Explanation: Circumduction is a compensatory gait pattern often used to clear the foot
when the patient has foot drop (weak dorsiflexors), preventing toe drag.
Question 6
A patient reports sharp, shooting pain radiating down the posterior leg. This is most consistent
with:
A. Sciatica
B. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
C. Hip osteoarthritis
D. Lumbar spinal stenosis
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 Explanation: Sharp, shooting pain radiating down the posterior leg is a classic description
of sciatica, often due to compression or irritation of the sciatic nerve or its nerve roots.
Question 7
Which of the following is a primary goal of the International Classification of Functioning,
, Disability and Health (ICF) model?
A. To classify medical diagnoses only
B. To describe functioning and disability in relation to health conditions
C. To replace the medical model entirely
D. To focus solely on impairment
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: The ICF model provides a biopsychosocial framework for describing
functioning and disability, considering body functions, activities, participation, and contextual
factors.
Question 8
A physical therapist is working with a patient who has had a total hip arthroplasty (posterior
approach). Which movement should be avoided initially?
A. Hip abduction
B. Hip extension
C. Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees
D. Ankle dorsiflexion
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: After a posterior-approach total hip arthroplasty, hip flexion beyond 90
degrees, internal rotation, and adduction are typically restricted to prevent dislocation.
Question 9
A patient with a C6 spinal cord injury is being evaluated for functional mobility. Which muscle
group would be expected to be innervated?
A. Wrist extensors
B. Finger flexors
C. Triceps
D. Intercostals
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 Explanation: A C6 spinal cord injury typically spares wrist extensors (C6 myotome). Finger
flexors (C8), triceps (C7), and intercostals (T1-T12) would be impaired or absent.
Question 10
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient with acute low
back pain?
A. Strict bed rest for one week
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF]
– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
Core Domains
1. Musculoskeletal Physical Therapy
2. Neuromuscular Physical Therapy
3. Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
4. Integumentary Physical Therapy
5. Pediatric and Geriatric Physical Therapy
6. Legal, Ethical, and Regulatory Standards
7. Professional Practice and Documentation
8. Safety, Infection Control, and Emergency Procedures
9. Biomechanics, Kinesiology, and Foundational Theory
10. Clinical Reasoning and Evidence-Based Practice
Introduction
This comprehensive assessment is designed to evaluate the knowledge, clinical reasoning, and
professional judgment required for entry-level physical therapist practice. It assesses foundational
theory, applied professional knowledge, technical concepts, regulatory and legal compliance,
ethics, and safety responsibilities. The exam employs a multiple-choice and scenario-based
structure to mirror real-world clinical decision-making. Emphasis is placed on practical
application, interpretation, analysis, and critical thinking. Candidates must demonstrate
competency across musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, cardiovascular, pulmonary, integumentary,
pediatric, and geriatric domains while adhering to professional standards and evidence-based
practice.
SECTION ONE – QUESTIONS 1–100
,Question 1
A physical therapist is evaluating a patient with a suspected anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
tear. Which special test is most commonly used to assess for this injury?
A. McMurray test
B. Lachman test
C. Apprehension test
D. Thomas test
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: The Lachman test is highly sensitive and specific for assessing ACL integrity. It
is performed with the knee flexed at 20-30 degrees, and an anterior translation of the tibia
relative to the femur indicates a positive test.
Question 2
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is participating in an exercise
program. Which of the following is the most appropriate intensity for aerobic training?
A. 40-60% of maximal heart rate
B. 60-80% of maximal heart rate
C. 80-90% of maximal heart rate
D. 90-100% of maximal heart rate
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: For patients with COPD, moderate-intensity aerobic exercise at 60-80% of
maximal heart rate is generally recommended and safe, often using the Borg Rating of
Perceived Exertion (RPE) scale of 4-6.
Question 3
A physical therapist is treating a patient with a Stage II pressure ulcer on the sacrum. Which
intervention is contraindicated?
A. Position changes every 2 hours
B. Application of a hydrocolloid dressing
C. Massage directly over the ulcer
D. Using a pressure-redistributing mattress
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: Direct massage over a pressure ulcer can cause further tissue damage and
should be avoided. Positioning, appropriate dressings, and pressure-redistributing surfaces are
standard care.
,Question 4
Which of the following best describes the principle of "informed consent" in physical therapy
practice?
A. The therapist decides the plan of care without patient input.
B. The patient agrees to treatment after being fully informed of risks, benefits, and alternatives.
C. The patient signs a waiver releasing the therapist from all liability.
D. The therapist obtains consent from the patient's family only.
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: Informed consent requires that the patient voluntarily agrees to treatment
after receiving and understanding information about the nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives
of the proposed intervention.
Question 5
A physical therapist is assessing a patient's gait. The patient's affected leg circumducts during
the swing phase. This is most likely due to:
A. Foot drop
B. Hip flexion contracture
C. Knee flexion contracture
D. Spasticity of the hip adductors
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 Explanation: Circumduction is a compensatory gait pattern often used to clear the foot
when the patient has foot drop (weak dorsiflexors), preventing toe drag.
Question 6
A patient reports sharp, shooting pain radiating down the posterior leg. This is most consistent
with:
A. Sciatica
B. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
C. Hip osteoarthritis
D. Lumbar spinal stenosis
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 Explanation: Sharp, shooting pain radiating down the posterior leg is a classic description
of sciatica, often due to compression or irritation of the sciatic nerve or its nerve roots.
Question 7
Which of the following is a primary goal of the International Classification of Functioning,
, Disability and Health (ICF) model?
A. To classify medical diagnoses only
B. To describe functioning and disability in relation to health conditions
C. To replace the medical model entirely
D. To focus solely on impairment
🟢 Correct answer: B
🔴 Explanation: The ICF model provides a biopsychosocial framework for describing
functioning and disability, considering body functions, activities, participation, and contextual
factors.
Question 8
A physical therapist is working with a patient who has had a total hip arthroplasty (posterior
approach). Which movement should be avoided initially?
A. Hip abduction
B. Hip extension
C. Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees
D. Ankle dorsiflexion
🟢 Correct answer: C
🔴 Explanation: After a posterior-approach total hip arthroplasty, hip flexion beyond 90
degrees, internal rotation, and adduction are typically restricted to prevent dislocation.
Question 9
A patient with a C6 spinal cord injury is being evaluated for functional mobility. Which muscle
group would be expected to be innervated?
A. Wrist extensors
B. Finger flexors
C. Triceps
D. Intercostals
🟢 Correct answer: A
🔴 Explanation: A C6 spinal cord injury typically spares wrist extensors (C6 myotome). Finger
flexors (C8), triceps (C7), and intercostals (T1-T12) would be impaired or absent.
Question 10
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient with acute low
back pain?
A. Strict bed rest for one week
