ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is considering various
contraceptive methods. Which of the following methods should the
nurse identify as providing the most effective protection against
pregnancy?
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Condoms
C. Etonogestrel implant [CORRECT]
D. Diaphragm
Rationale: The etonogestrel implant is a long-acting reversible
contraceptive (LARC) with a failure rate of less than 1%, making it one of
the most effective methods. Oral contraceptives, condoms, and
diaphragms have higher typical-use failure rates.
2. A nurse is reviewing the genetic history of a couple who are
planning a pregnancy. The nurse should identify that which of the
following conditions follows an autosomal recessive pattern of
inheritance?
A. Huntington's disease
B. Cystic fibrosis [CORRECT]
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Neurofibromatosis
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning
both parents must pass on the defective gene for the child to be
,affected. Huntington's disease, Marfan syndrome, and
neurofibromatosis are autosomal dominant.
3. A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation who reports
nausea and vomiting. Which of the following recommendations
should the nurse make?
A. "Drink a large glass of water with each meal."
B. "Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed in the morning."
[CORRECT]
C. "Increase your intake of spicy foods."
D. "Skip breakfast to allow your stomach to rest."
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before rising can help alleviate morning
sickness by absorbing stomach acids. Large fluids with meals, spicy
foods, and skipping meals can exacerbate nausea.
4. A nurse is assessing a client in the first stage of labor. The client's
cervix is dilated to 4 cm, and contractions are occurring every 3 to 5
minutes. Which of the following phases of labor is the client
experiencing?
A. Latent phase
B. Active phase [CORRECT]
C. Transition phase
D. Second stage
Rationale: The active phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by
cervical dilation from 4 to 7 cm with contractions every 3 to 5 minutes.
The latent phase is 0 to 3 cm, and the transition phase is 8 to 10 cm.
5. A nurse is reviewing the fetal monitor strip of a client in labor. The
nurse observes variable decelerations. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
,A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
B. Reposition the client to a side-lying position. [CORRECT]
C. Increase the IV fluid rate.
D. Notify the provider.
Rationale: Variable decelerations are typically caused by umbilical cord
compression. The first action is to reposition the client to relieve the
compression. Oxygen and IV fluids may follow, but repositioning is the
priority.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The client's
fundus is boggy and located above the umbilicus. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer methylergonovine.
B. Massage the fundus. [CORRECT]
C. Notify the provider.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Rationale: A boggy fundus indicates uterine atony. The immediate
nursing action is to massage the fundus to stimulate contraction. If
massage is ineffective, medications or further interventions may be
needed.
7. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 minute after birth. The newborn
has a heart rate of 120 bpm, is crying vigorously, has flexed
extremities, grimaces when suctioned, and has a pink body with blue
extremities. What is the newborn's Apgar score?
A. 7
B. 8 [CORRECT]
C. 9
D. 10
Rationale: Heart rate 120 = 2. Respiratory effort crying = 2. Muscle tone
, flexed = 2. Reflex irritability grimace = 1. Color pink body, blue
extremities = 1. Total = 8.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has
preeclampsia. The client reports a severe headache. Which of the
following complications should the nurse suspect?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Eclampsia [CORRECT]
C. Placenta previa
D. Abruptio placentae
Rationale: A severe headache in a client with preeclampsia is a warning
sign of worsening cerebral edema and impending seizures (eclampsia).
It requires immediate intervention.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a diaphragm. Which of
the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Leave the diaphragm in place for 2 hours after intercourse."
B. "Apply spermicide to the rim of the diaphragm before insertion."
[CORRECT]
C. "Replace the diaphragm every 6 months."
D. "Use the diaphragm during your menstrual period."
Rationale: A diaphragm must be used with spermicide to be effective. It
should remain in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse. It should be
replaced every 2 years, not 6 months, and should not be used during
menstruation due to increased risk of toxic shock syndrome.
10. A nurse is providing nutritional counseling to a client who is
pregnant. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend
as a good source of folic acid?
A. Fortified cereals [CORRECT]
QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is considering various
contraceptive methods. Which of the following methods should the
nurse identify as providing the most effective protection against
pregnancy?
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Condoms
C. Etonogestrel implant [CORRECT]
D. Diaphragm
Rationale: The etonogestrel implant is a long-acting reversible
contraceptive (LARC) with a failure rate of less than 1%, making it one of
the most effective methods. Oral contraceptives, condoms, and
diaphragms have higher typical-use failure rates.
2. A nurse is reviewing the genetic history of a couple who are
planning a pregnancy. The nurse should identify that which of the
following conditions follows an autosomal recessive pattern of
inheritance?
A. Huntington's disease
B. Cystic fibrosis [CORRECT]
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Neurofibromatosis
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning
both parents must pass on the defective gene for the child to be
,affected. Huntington's disease, Marfan syndrome, and
neurofibromatosis are autosomal dominant.
3. A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation who reports
nausea and vomiting. Which of the following recommendations
should the nurse make?
A. "Drink a large glass of water with each meal."
B. "Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed in the morning."
[CORRECT]
C. "Increase your intake of spicy foods."
D. "Skip breakfast to allow your stomach to rest."
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before rising can help alleviate morning
sickness by absorbing stomach acids. Large fluids with meals, spicy
foods, and skipping meals can exacerbate nausea.
4. A nurse is assessing a client in the first stage of labor. The client's
cervix is dilated to 4 cm, and contractions are occurring every 3 to 5
minutes. Which of the following phases of labor is the client
experiencing?
A. Latent phase
B. Active phase [CORRECT]
C. Transition phase
D. Second stage
Rationale: The active phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by
cervical dilation from 4 to 7 cm with contractions every 3 to 5 minutes.
The latent phase is 0 to 3 cm, and the transition phase is 8 to 10 cm.
5. A nurse is reviewing the fetal monitor strip of a client in labor. The
nurse observes variable decelerations. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
,A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
B. Reposition the client to a side-lying position. [CORRECT]
C. Increase the IV fluid rate.
D. Notify the provider.
Rationale: Variable decelerations are typically caused by umbilical cord
compression. The first action is to reposition the client to relieve the
compression. Oxygen and IV fluids may follow, but repositioning is the
priority.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The client's
fundus is boggy and located above the umbilicus. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer methylergonovine.
B. Massage the fundus. [CORRECT]
C. Notify the provider.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Rationale: A boggy fundus indicates uterine atony. The immediate
nursing action is to massage the fundus to stimulate contraction. If
massage is ineffective, medications or further interventions may be
needed.
7. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 minute after birth. The newborn
has a heart rate of 120 bpm, is crying vigorously, has flexed
extremities, grimaces when suctioned, and has a pink body with blue
extremities. What is the newborn's Apgar score?
A. 7
B. 8 [CORRECT]
C. 9
D. 10
Rationale: Heart rate 120 = 2. Respiratory effort crying = 2. Muscle tone
, flexed = 2. Reflex irritability grimace = 1. Color pink body, blue
extremities = 1. Total = 8.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has
preeclampsia. The client reports a severe headache. Which of the
following complications should the nurse suspect?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Eclampsia [CORRECT]
C. Placenta previa
D. Abruptio placentae
Rationale: A severe headache in a client with preeclampsia is a warning
sign of worsening cerebral edema and impending seizures (eclampsia).
It requires immediate intervention.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a diaphragm. Which of
the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Leave the diaphragm in place for 2 hours after intercourse."
B. "Apply spermicide to the rim of the diaphragm before insertion."
[CORRECT]
C. "Replace the diaphragm every 6 months."
D. "Use the diaphragm during your menstrual period."
Rationale: A diaphragm must be used with spermicide to be effective. It
should remain in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse. It should be
replaced every 2 years, not 6 months, and should not be used during
menstruation due to increased risk of toxic shock syndrome.
10. A nurse is providing nutritional counseling to a client who is
pregnant. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend
as a good source of folic acid?
A. Fortified cereals [CORRECT]
