Caregiver Exam Questions with VERIFIED Answers (Guaranteed Success)
Q1: The nurse is providing instructions to a client and family regarding home care following cataract
removal from the left eye. The nurse would plan to teach the client which of the following pieces of
information about positioning in the postoperative period? 1. Lower the head between the knees 3
times a day. 2. Bend below the waist as often as possible. 3. Avoid sleeping on the left side. 4. Sleep
only on the left side..
Answer: 3. Avoid sleeping on the left side. Following cataract surgery, the client should not sleep on
the left side of he body that was operated on. Clients should also avoid bending below the level of the
waist so as not to increase intraocular pressure. Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that options that are
comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind, eliminate "lower the head between
the knees 3 times a day" and "bend below the waist as often as possible" first. Choose correctly
between the two remaining options, using knowledge of positioning following eye surgery and
principles related to gravity and edema formation. Review the care to the client following cataract
surgery if you had difficulty with this question.
Q2: The client with hypertension has been prescribed a low-sodium diet. The nurse teaching this client
about foods that are allowed should plan to include which of the following in a list provided to the
client? 1. Tomato soup 2. Boiled shrimp 3. Instant oatmeal 4. Summer squash.
Answer: 4. Summer squash Foods that are lower in sodium are fruits and vegetables (summer squash)
because they do not contain physiological saline. Highly processed or refined foods ( tomato soup and
instant oatmeal) are higher in sodium unless they are specifically noted as "low sodium." Saltwater fish
and shellfish are higher in sodium. Test-Taking Strategy: Begin to answer this question by eliminating
"boiled shrimp" as being highest in sodium. Eliminate the other correct options they are processed
foods. Review the foods that are high and low in sodium if you had difficulty with this question.
,Q3: The client has been diagnosed with gout. In developing a teaching plan for this client, the nurse
should include a list that identifies which of the following foods to be avoided? 1. Chicken liver 2.
Carrots 3. Tapioca 4. Chocolate.
Answer: 1. Chicken liver Liver and other organ meats should be omitted from the diet of a client who
has gout because of high purine content. Purines are a form of protein. The food items identified in the
other options contain negligible amounts of purines and may be consumed freely by the client with
gout. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the pathophysiology of the client's diagnosis and subject, foods
high in purine. Remember that organ meats are high in purines.
Q4: The client is resuming a diet after hemigastrectomy. To minimize complications, the nurse would
tell the client to avoid doing which of the following? 1. Lying down after eating 2. Drinking liquids with
meals 3. Eating six meals a day 4. Excluding concentrated sweets in the diet.
Answer: 2. Drinking liquids with meals The client who had a hemigastrectomy is at risk for dumping
syndrome. This client should be placed on a diet that is high in protein, moderate in fat, and high in
calories. The client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. Frequent small meals are encouraged, and
the client should avoid concentrated sweets.
Q5: The nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretic about foods
that are low in potassium. The nurse should include which of the following on a list of foods that have
low potassium content? 1. Apple 2. Carrots 3. Spinach 4. Avocado.
Answer: 1. Apple On medium apple with skin provides approximately 159 mg of potassium per serving,
so it has the lowest potassium content of these choices. Raw spinach (oz) provides 470 mg of
potassium. One large carrot has 341 mg of potassium. One medium avocado provides the highest
potassium content, 1097 mg. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the low potassium food. Use
knowledge about the nutritional content of foods to assist in directing you to "apple."
,Q6: The nurse understands that increasing the flow of oxygen to more than 2L/min in the client with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) could be harmful because it: 1. Is drying the nasal
mucosal passages 2. Decreases diaphragmatic excursion and depth 3. Increases the risk of pneumonia
and atelectasis 4. Decreases the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive.
Answer: 4. Decreases the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive Normally, respiratory rate varies with
the amount of carbon dioxide present in the blood. In clients with COPD, this natural process becomes
ineffective after exposure to high levels of carbon dioxide for prolonged periods of time. Instead, the
level of oxygen provides the respiratory stimulus. The client with COPD cannot increase oxygen levels
independently because this could decrease the respiratory drive, leading to respiratory failure.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of basic respiratory physiology to answer this question.
Remember that the client with COPD should not increase the flow of oxygen to more than 2L/min,
because this could severely decrease the respiratory drive.
Q7: The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) anticipates
which of the following arterial blood gases (ABG) findings? 1. pH, 7.40; PaO2 90 mmHg; CO2 39 Meq/L;
HCO3, 23 mEq/L 2. pH, 7.32; PaO2,85 mmHg; CO2 57 Meq/L; HCO3, 26 mEq/L 3. pH, 7.47; PaO2 82
mmHg; CO2 30 Meq/L; HCO3, 31 mEq/L 4. pH, 7.31; PaO2 95 mmHg; CO2 22 Meq/L; HCO3, 19mEq/L.
Answer: 2. pH, 7.32; PaO2,85 mmHg; CO2 57 Meq/L; HCO3, 26 mEq/L The client with COPD will exist is
a state of respiratory acidosis - pH, 7.40; PaO2 90 mmHg; CO2 39 Meq/L; HCO3, 23 mEq/L and
increased CO2 whioch acts as as acid in the body. It is elevated in the client with COPD because of the
inability to exhale well and eliminate CO2. Therefore with a rise in CO2, there is a corresponding fall in
pH. The answer with pH, 7.31; PaO2 95 mmHg; CO2 22 mEq/L; HCO3, 19mEq/L reflect an acidotic pH
but the CO2 is normal. Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that a client with COPD will exist in a state of
respiratory acidosis. Also recall that there is an inverse relationship between the pH and the CO2 in the
body. As CO2 rises, pH falls; as CO2 falls, pH rises. This concept forms the basis for primary concepts of
acid-base balance and respiratory disorders. NORMAL pH: acidotic...7.35 - 7.45...alkalotic CO2: 35 - 45
HCO3: acidotic...22 - 26...alkalotic
, Q8: The client with COPD is experiencing exacerbation of the disease. The nurse would determine that
which of the following documented in the client's record is an expected finding with this client? 1.
Increased oxygen saturation with ambulation 2. Hyperinflation of lungs documented by chest x-ray 3. A
widened diaphragm documented by chest x-ray 4. A shortened expiratory phase of the respiratory
cycle.
Answer: 2. Hyperinflation of lungs documented by chest x-ray The clinical manifestations of COPD are
several including hypoxemia, hypercapnia, dyspnea on exertion and at rest; oxygen desaturation with
exercise; use of accessory muscles; and prolonged exhalation. Chest x-ray results indicate a
hyperinflated chest and may indicate a flattened diaphragm if the disease is advanced. Test-Taking
Strategy: Use of process of elimination after reading each option carefully. Eliminate "increased oxygen
saturation with ambulation" because the revers is true, even in the client with no respiratory disorder.
Eliminate "a widened diaphragm documented by chest x-ray' because it is the opposite of what
happens with exacerbation. Eliminate "a shortened expiratory phase of the respiratory cycle" because
the client with COPD has a prolonged expiratory phase. Review the clinical manifestations of COPD if
you had difficulty with this question.
Q9: A 30 year-old man with chronic traumatic brain injury was admitted for a surgical procedure and is
to be discharged. The nurse should modify his discharge instructions by: 1. Providing detailed oral
instructions 2. Providing detailed written instructions 3. Having him repeat the instructions 4. Having
sustained eye contact during the instruction.
Answer: 3. Having him repeat the instructions
Q10: John Bouknight, age 62, has a five-year history of Parkinson's Disease (PD). As Mr. Bouknight
ambulates with a walker, he stops and tells the nurse his legs "feel as is they are glued to the floor."
The nurse recognizes this as the "freezing of gait," a common development in PD that requires the
nurse to: 1. Report the finding to the physical therapist. 2. Initiate fall risk procedures for the patient 3.
Call the physician to discuss medication side effects 4. Initiate relaxation training to assist the patient
with ambulation..
Answer: 2. Initiate fall risk procedures for the patient
Q1: The nurse is providing instructions to a client and family regarding home care following cataract
removal from the left eye. The nurse would plan to teach the client which of the following pieces of
information about positioning in the postoperative period? 1. Lower the head between the knees 3
times a day. 2. Bend below the waist as often as possible. 3. Avoid sleeping on the left side. 4. Sleep
only on the left side..
Answer: 3. Avoid sleeping on the left side. Following cataract surgery, the client should not sleep on
the left side of he body that was operated on. Clients should also avoid bending below the level of the
waist so as not to increase intraocular pressure. Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that options that are
comparable or alike are not likely to be correct. With this in mind, eliminate "lower the head between
the knees 3 times a day" and "bend below the waist as often as possible" first. Choose correctly
between the two remaining options, using knowledge of positioning following eye surgery and
principles related to gravity and edema formation. Review the care to the client following cataract
surgery if you had difficulty with this question.
Q2: The client with hypertension has been prescribed a low-sodium diet. The nurse teaching this client
about foods that are allowed should plan to include which of the following in a list provided to the
client? 1. Tomato soup 2. Boiled shrimp 3. Instant oatmeal 4. Summer squash.
Answer: 4. Summer squash Foods that are lower in sodium are fruits and vegetables (summer squash)
because they do not contain physiological saline. Highly processed or refined foods ( tomato soup and
instant oatmeal) are higher in sodium unless they are specifically noted as "low sodium." Saltwater fish
and shellfish are higher in sodium. Test-Taking Strategy: Begin to answer this question by eliminating
"boiled shrimp" as being highest in sodium. Eliminate the other correct options they are processed
foods. Review the foods that are high and low in sodium if you had difficulty with this question.
,Q3: The client has been diagnosed with gout. In developing a teaching plan for this client, the nurse
should include a list that identifies which of the following foods to be avoided? 1. Chicken liver 2.
Carrots 3. Tapioca 4. Chocolate.
Answer: 1. Chicken liver Liver and other organ meats should be omitted from the diet of a client who
has gout because of high purine content. Purines are a form of protein. The food items identified in the
other options contain negligible amounts of purines and may be consumed freely by the client with
gout. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the pathophysiology of the client's diagnosis and subject, foods
high in purine. Remember that organ meats are high in purines.
Q4: The client is resuming a diet after hemigastrectomy. To minimize complications, the nurse would
tell the client to avoid doing which of the following? 1. Lying down after eating 2. Drinking liquids with
meals 3. Eating six meals a day 4. Excluding concentrated sweets in the diet.
Answer: 2. Drinking liquids with meals The client who had a hemigastrectomy is at risk for dumping
syndrome. This client should be placed on a diet that is high in protein, moderate in fat, and high in
calories. The client should avoid drinking liquids with meals. Frequent small meals are encouraged, and
the client should avoid concentrated sweets.
Q5: The nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretic about foods
that are low in potassium. The nurse should include which of the following on a list of foods that have
low potassium content? 1. Apple 2. Carrots 3. Spinach 4. Avocado.
Answer: 1. Apple On medium apple with skin provides approximately 159 mg of potassium per serving,
so it has the lowest potassium content of these choices. Raw spinach (oz) provides 470 mg of
potassium. One large carrot has 341 mg of potassium. One medium avocado provides the highest
potassium content, 1097 mg. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the low potassium food. Use
knowledge about the nutritional content of foods to assist in directing you to "apple."
,Q6: The nurse understands that increasing the flow of oxygen to more than 2L/min in the client with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) could be harmful because it: 1. Is drying the nasal
mucosal passages 2. Decreases diaphragmatic excursion and depth 3. Increases the risk of pneumonia
and atelectasis 4. Decreases the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive.
Answer: 4. Decreases the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive Normally, respiratory rate varies with
the amount of carbon dioxide present in the blood. In clients with COPD, this natural process becomes
ineffective after exposure to high levels of carbon dioxide for prolonged periods of time. Instead, the
level of oxygen provides the respiratory stimulus. The client with COPD cannot increase oxygen levels
independently because this could decrease the respiratory drive, leading to respiratory failure.
Test-Taking Strategy: Use knowledge of basic respiratory physiology to answer this question.
Remember that the client with COPD should not increase the flow of oxygen to more than 2L/min,
because this could severely decrease the respiratory drive.
Q7: The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) anticipates
which of the following arterial blood gases (ABG) findings? 1. pH, 7.40; PaO2 90 mmHg; CO2 39 Meq/L;
HCO3, 23 mEq/L 2. pH, 7.32; PaO2,85 mmHg; CO2 57 Meq/L; HCO3, 26 mEq/L 3. pH, 7.47; PaO2 82
mmHg; CO2 30 Meq/L; HCO3, 31 mEq/L 4. pH, 7.31; PaO2 95 mmHg; CO2 22 Meq/L; HCO3, 19mEq/L.
Answer: 2. pH, 7.32; PaO2,85 mmHg; CO2 57 Meq/L; HCO3, 26 mEq/L The client with COPD will exist is
a state of respiratory acidosis - pH, 7.40; PaO2 90 mmHg; CO2 39 Meq/L; HCO3, 23 mEq/L and
increased CO2 whioch acts as as acid in the body. It is elevated in the client with COPD because of the
inability to exhale well and eliminate CO2. Therefore with a rise in CO2, there is a corresponding fall in
pH. The answer with pH, 7.31; PaO2 95 mmHg; CO2 22 mEq/L; HCO3, 19mEq/L reflect an acidotic pH
but the CO2 is normal. Test-Taking Strategy: Remember that a client with COPD will exist in a state of
respiratory acidosis. Also recall that there is an inverse relationship between the pH and the CO2 in the
body. As CO2 rises, pH falls; as CO2 falls, pH rises. This concept forms the basis for primary concepts of
acid-base balance and respiratory disorders. NORMAL pH: acidotic...7.35 - 7.45...alkalotic CO2: 35 - 45
HCO3: acidotic...22 - 26...alkalotic
, Q8: The client with COPD is experiencing exacerbation of the disease. The nurse would determine that
which of the following documented in the client's record is an expected finding with this client? 1.
Increased oxygen saturation with ambulation 2. Hyperinflation of lungs documented by chest x-ray 3. A
widened diaphragm documented by chest x-ray 4. A shortened expiratory phase of the respiratory
cycle.
Answer: 2. Hyperinflation of lungs documented by chest x-ray The clinical manifestations of COPD are
several including hypoxemia, hypercapnia, dyspnea on exertion and at rest; oxygen desaturation with
exercise; use of accessory muscles; and prolonged exhalation. Chest x-ray results indicate a
hyperinflated chest and may indicate a flattened diaphragm if the disease is advanced. Test-Taking
Strategy: Use of process of elimination after reading each option carefully. Eliminate "increased oxygen
saturation with ambulation" because the revers is true, even in the client with no respiratory disorder.
Eliminate "a widened diaphragm documented by chest x-ray' because it is the opposite of what
happens with exacerbation. Eliminate "a shortened expiratory phase of the respiratory cycle" because
the client with COPD has a prolonged expiratory phase. Review the clinical manifestations of COPD if
you had difficulty with this question.
Q9: A 30 year-old man with chronic traumatic brain injury was admitted for a surgical procedure and is
to be discharged. The nurse should modify his discharge instructions by: 1. Providing detailed oral
instructions 2. Providing detailed written instructions 3. Having him repeat the instructions 4. Having
sustained eye contact during the instruction.
Answer: 3. Having him repeat the instructions
Q10: John Bouknight, age 62, has a five-year history of Parkinson's Disease (PD). As Mr. Bouknight
ambulates with a walker, he stops and tells the nurse his legs "feel as is they are glued to the floor."
The nurse recognizes this as the "freezing of gait," a common development in PD that requires the
nurse to: 1. Report the finding to the physical therapist. 2. Initiate fall risk procedures for the patient 3.
Call the physician to discuss medication side effects 4. Initiate relaxation training to assist the patient
with ambulation..
Answer: 2. Initiate fall risk procedures for the patient
