BLOOD BANK FINAL EXAM (CHAPTERS 1-16 UPDATED ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

BLOOD BANK FINAL EXAM (CHAPTERS 1-16 UPDATED
ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

Question:
1. Which of the following is NOT a part of a QA program?
Answer:
viral marker testing

Question:
2. What criteria apply to the correction of manual records?
Answer:
the original entry is not deleted, the person making the correction dates and initials the change, the item is
crossed out with a single line

Question:
3. What is the purpose of competency assessment?
Answer:
*identify employees in need of retraining *comply with regulatory standards

Question:
4. What does not apply to the performance of internal audits?
Answer:
they are solely used to identify troublemakers

Question:
5. Where are cGMPs applicable to the blood bank industry found?
Answer:
FDA code of federal regulations

Question:
6. WHat term describes the process to identify the factors contributing to the occurence of
nonconformance?
Answer:
root cause analysis

Question:
7. government agency that regulates blood banks
Answer:
FDA

Question:
8. agency responsible for safety
Answer:
OSHA

,Question:
9. voluntary peer review organization
Answer:
AABB

Question:
10. Who is ULTIMATELY responsible for a safety program in the lab?
Answer:
the employer or lab director

Question:
11. What organization publishes the "Technical Manual"
Answer:
AABB

Question:
12. The organization that provides certified good manufacturing practices (cGMPs) for BB
Answer:
FDA

Question:
13. Term for goggles, face masks, and shields
Answer:
PPE

Question:
14. Policy of treating all substances as potentially infectious
Answer:
standard precautions

Question:
15. The most effective defense for infection control and safety
Answer:
hand washing

Question:
16. The disinfectant used for decontamination
Answer:
1:10 bleach dilution

Question:
17. When should an accident or injury be reported
Answer:
at the time the accident or injury occurs

,Question:
18. The best way to keep employees and the lab safe
Answer:
safety training

Question:
19. determine the degree of risk to exposure of infectious disease
Answer:
biosafety levels

Question:
20. classes of medical waste per the EPA
Answer:
micro and patho waste, blood specimens and products, lab coats and gowns, sharps

Question:
21. Flash point
Answer:
the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel produces enough vapor to burn

Question:
22. Proficiency testing should be performed by
Answer:
all personnel who routinely perform the procedure

Question:
23. Which cells produce antibodies
Answer:
B lymphocytes that get activated and turn into plasma cells

Question:
24. term that describes the number of antigen binding sites per molecule of antibody?
Answer:
valency

Question:
25. Describes the unique part of the antigen that is recognized by a corresponding antibody
Answer:
epitope

Question:
26. Which molecule does not make a good immunogenic substance?
Answer:
lipids

, Question:
27. What is the chemical composition of an antibody?
Answer:
glycoprotein

Question:
28. Where is the antigen located in the hemagglutination test?
Answer:
on the RBC membrane

Question:
29. What can enhance hemagglutination reactions?
Answer:
increasing the incubation time

Question:
30. describes molecules that bind to an antigen to increase phagocytosis
Answer:
opsonins

Question:
31. after performing a tube test, the supernatant of the test was pinkish, and the red cell button was small,
how do you interpret these results?
Answer:
positive

Question:
32. many small agglutinates in a background of free cells
Answer:
1+

Question:
33. to determine the presence of a red cell antibody, what is the source of antigen
Answer:
commercial reagent red cells

Question:
34. How does compliment activation demonstrate within the body?
Answer:
cell lysis, enhanced cell clearance, neutrophil activation, generation of vasoactive amines

Question:
35. After the addition of anti-A reagent to a patient's red cell suspension, agglutination was observed. The
result with anti-B reagent was negative. What is the interpretation of this patient's ABO typing?
Answer:
patient is group A