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NU 636 Exam 2 Advanced Pharmacology Questions And Answers 2026/2027 Herzing University

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This document helps you master the NU 636 Exam 2 Advanced Pharmacology exam at Herzing University via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers cardiovascular pharmacology including antihypertensives and statins, diabetes medications including metformin and insulin, antimicrobial agents, central nervous system drugs, oncology therapeutics and immunology, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, drug interactions, and safe prescribing principles. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen critical understanding, this test pack simplifies complex content, saving preparation time and helping you secure an A on your Exam 2 Assessment.

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,NU 636 Exam 2 Advanced Pharmacology Questions And Answers
2026/2027 Herzing University

Q1. Which antihypertensive class reduces formation of angiotensin
II and decreases aldosterone secretion?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Beta blockers
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Alpha-1 blockers
Correct Answer: C) ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin
II, producing vasodilation and reduced aldosterone-mediated sodium and
water retention.

Q2. Which adverse effect is particularly associated with ACE
inhibitors?
A) Persistent dry cough
B) Constipation
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Bronchospasm in every patient
Correct Answer: A) Persistent dry cough
Rationale: Accumulation of bradykinin can produce a persistent
nonproductive cough in patients taking ACE inhibitors.

Q3. A patient develops a bothersome cough while taking lisinopril.
Which medication is a reasonable alternative when continued renin-
angiotensin system blockade is desired?
A) Propranolol
B) Verapamil
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Losartan
Correct Answer: D) Losartan
Rationale: Angiotensin receptor blockers provide similar blockade without
inhibiting bradykinin degradation and therefore cause cough much less
frequently.

Q4. Which laboratory abnormality can occur with ACE inhibitors and
ARBs?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Severe hypoglycemia

, Correct Answer: C) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Reduced aldosterone activity decreases renal potassium
excretion.

Q5. Which antihypertensive class should generally be avoided
during pregnancy because of fetal toxicity?
A) Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Certain beta blockers
D) Some centrally acting agents
Correct Answer: B) ACE inhibitors
Rationale: Drugs that inhibit the renin-angiotensin system can cause
serious fetal renal and developmental injury.

Q6. Which statement best describes the mechanism of ARBs such as
losartan?
A) They inhibit calcium entry into cardiac cells
B) They increase aldosterone release
C) They directly inhibit renin
D) They block angiotensin II at AT1 receptors
Correct Answer: D) They block angiotensin II at AT1 receptors
Rationale: ARBs prevent angiotensin II from activating AT1 receptors,
reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone effects.

Q7. Which antihypertensive medication is classified as a thiazide-
like diuretic?
A) Furosemide
B) Spironolactone
C) Amiloride
D) Chlorthalidone
Correct Answer: D) Chlorthalidone
Rationale: Chlorthalidone is a thiazide-like diuretic commonly used for
hypertension.

Q8. Thiazide diuretics lower blood pressure initially by:
A) Increasing sodium and water excretion
B) Blocking beta-1 receptors
C) Inhibiting angiotensin II receptors
D) Directly increasing cardiac contractility
Correct Answer: A) Increasing sodium and water excretion
Rationale: Natriuresis decreases extracellular fluid and plasma volume, with
longer-term reductions in vascular resistance.

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