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NURS 8024 TEST 1 | Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Latest Update

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NURS 8024 TEST 1 | Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Latest Update

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NURS 8024 TEST 1 | Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Latest Update
Question: What is pharmacoeconomics?
Answer:
The description and analysis of the costs of drug therapy to health care systems and society, measuring
and comparing costs and consequences of pharmaceutical products and services.

Question: What are the three methods for evaluating treatment costs?
Answer:
Cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), and humanistic (cost- utility) analysis
(CUA).

Question: What does Cost-Benefit Analysis (CBA) evaluate?
Answer:
The impact of an intervention, activity, or program on general society, including the economic value of a
life or productive years.

Question: What is the formula for the Cost-Benefit Ratio?
Answer:
Cost Benefit Ratio = Dollars of economic benefit / Dollar cost of program.

Question: What is a common error in prescribing related to drug names?
Answer:
Wrong drug name or confusing abbreviations.

Question: What is a significant issue affecting patient compliance with medications?
Answer:
Patients may not obtain medications due to cost, lack of communication, or premature discontinuation.

Question: What role does technology play in reducing prescribing errors?
Answer:
Use of electronic medical records (EMR) and e-prescribing to ensure accurate medication orders.

Question: What should prescribers do if a patient exhibits suicidal ideation?
Answer:
Limit prescriptions to no more than 7 days of any medication that can be lethal in overdose.

Question: What is medication reconciliation?

,Answer:
An initiative to ensure medication accuracy as patients move across different care settings, such as
inpatient to outpatient.

Question: What is the significance of patient education in medication adherence?
Answer:
Building a trusting relationship, involving patients in their care plan, and providing clear instructions can
enhance adherence.

Question: What is the primary focus of cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA)?
Answer:
To compare similar treatments based on their outcomes and costs.

Question: What are common reasons for medication errors in prescribing?
Answer:
Illegible writing, incomplete directions, wrong or unspecified doses, and errors of omission.

Question: What should prescribers consider regarding patient characteristics?
Answer:
Age, comorbidities, clinical presentation of illness, and insurance formularies.

Question: What is the purpose of patient education resources provided by the National Library of
Medicine?
Answer:
To offer reliable information and support for patients regarding their medications and health.

Question: What is the importance of understanding economic principles in prescribing?
Answer:
To recognize that all scarce items have a cost, and decision-makers choose purposefully to maximize
benefits.

Question: What are some strategies to encourage patient adherence to medication?
Answer:
Gradual changes, teaching the purpose and timing of medications, and considering literacy and cultural
beliefs.

Question: What should be included in a rational prescribing process?
Answer:

,A specific diagnosis, therapeutic objectives, appropriate drug selection, dosing regimen, and monitoring
plans.

Question: What is the role of pharmaceutical companies in the prescribing process?
Answer:
Marketing to the public and providers, providing literature, and offering drug samples, while raising
ethical concerns.

Question: What are the implications of drug-seeking behavior for prescribers?
Answer:
It may involve over-reporting symptoms, multiple prescriptions from different providers, and pressure to
prescribe.

Question: What is the significance of patient compliance in medication management?
Answer:
Non-compliance can lead to treatment failure and increased healthcare costs.

Question: What is the impact of economic issues on patient medication adherence?
Answer:
Patients may not fill prescriptions due to cost, leading to gaps in treatment and health outcomes.

Question: What is the role of the Institute for Safe Medication Practices?
Answer:
To provide resources that identify confusing drug names and abbreviations to avoid in prescribing.

Question: What should prescribers do to document rationale for 'off label' prescribing?
Answer:
Clearly document the reasons for using a drug outside its approved indications.

Question: What is the first step in the drug development process?
Answer:
Identification of chemical compounds through in vitro testing.

Question: What does INDA stand for?
Answer:
Investigational New Drug Application.

Question: What is the purpose of Phase I clinical trials?

, Answer:
To assess the safety and dosage of a drug.

Question: What is the primary goal of Phase II clinical trials?
Answer:
To evaluate the effectiveness of the drug.

Question: What is the focus of Phase III clinical trials?
Answer:
To confirm effectiveness, monitor side effects, and compare with standard treatments.

Question: What does NDA stand for?
Answer:
New Drug Application.

Question: What is post-marketing surveillance?
Answer:
Monitoring the safety and effectiveness of a drug after it has been approved for consumer use.

Question: What is the Orphan Drug Act of 1983?
Answer:
A law that provides incentives for the development of drugs for rare diseases.

Question: How many orphan drugs has the FDA approved since 1983?
Answer:
Over 550 orphan drugs for more than 80 rare diseases.

Question: What is bioequivalence?
Answer:
The requirement that drug products with the same physical and chemical composition produce
comparable therapeutic effects.

Question: What is the difference between bioequivalence and therapeutic equivalence?
Answer:
Bioequivalence refers to comparable therapeutic effects, while therapeutic equivalence means the
products are approved as safe and effective with identical active ingredients.

Question: What is the significance of the Blue Book in drug regulation?

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