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Evolve Elsevier HESI Med-Surg Test Bank — 100+ Practice Questions with WELL-DETAILED Answers & Rationales/ALREADY A GRADED

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Evolve Elsevier HESI Med-Surg Test Bank — 100+ Practice Questions with WELL-DETAILED Answers & Rationales/ALREADY A GRADED

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Evolve Elsevier HESI Med-Surg Test Bank — 100+

Practice Questions with WELL-DETAILED Answers &

Rationales/ALREADY A GRADED

-4-13.

, Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 1–25)


1. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes

mellitus. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse describe when teaching the client about

hypoglycemia?


 A) Sweating, trembling, tachycardia


 B) Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia


 C) Nausea, vomiting, anorexia


 D) Fruity breath, tachypnea, chest pain


Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sweating, trembling, and tachycardia are classic adrenergic signs of hypoglycemia caused by

epinephrine release when blood glucose drops below 70 mg/dL. Option B represents hyperglycemia.

Option D represents diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) -1.


2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted to the telemetry unit with sudden

onset of shortness of breath. The nurse observes a new irregular heart rhythm. Which assessment

should the nurse perform first?


 A) Check for a pulse deficit


 B) Palpate the apical impulse


 C) Inspect jugular vein pulse


 D) Examine for a carotid bruit

, Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A pulse deficit occurs when the apical pulse is greater than the radial pulse, a common finding

in atrial fibrillation. This assessment helps determine the effectiveness of cardiac output -2.


3. A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion,

orthopnea, and peripheral edema. On auscultation, the nurse notes an S3 gallop. Which is the most

likely diagnosis?


 A) Right-sided heart failure


 B) Left-sided heart failure


 C) Pericarditis


 D) Myocarditis


Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Left-sided heart failure presents with dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and an S3 gallop. The

S3 heart sound is a hallmark of decreased left ventricular compliance -2.


4. A client with heart failure has a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 20%. What is the

primary classification of heart failure in this patient?


 A) HFpEF


 B) HFrEF


 C) HFmrEF


 D) HFpEF with preserved LVEF


Correct Answer: B

Rationale: HFrEF (Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction) is characterized by an LVEF ≤ 40% -6.

, 5. A client with stable angina experiences chest pain that does not resolve after taking three

nitroglycerin tablets. What should the nurse advise?


 A) Continue taking nitroglycerin every 5 minutes


 B) Drive to the nearest hospital immediately


 C) Chew a tablet of aspirin 325 mg while waiting for emergency services


 D) Call a friend for assistance instead of emergency services


Correct Answer: C

Rationale: If chest pain persists after 3 nitroglycerin tablets, the client should chew aspirin and call

emergency services. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces mortality in acute coronary

syndrome -7.


6. A male client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and furosemide. Which finding

suggests digoxin toxicity?


 A) Heart rate 62 bpm


 B) Anorexia and nausea


 C) Pedal edema 1+


 D) Dry cough


Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Anorexia and nausea are early signs of digoxin toxicity. Furosemide-induced hypokalemia

increases the risk of digoxin toxicity -7.


7. The nurse is assessing a client with peripheral vascular disease who reports calf pain during

exercise that disappears at rest. Which finding requires further evaluation?

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