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Nr 605 Diagnosis Management In Psychiatric Practice Exam Questions And Answers

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NR 605 DIAGNOSIS MANAGEMENT IN PSYCHIATRIC PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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NR 605 DIAGNOSIS MANAGEMENT IN
PSYCHIATRIC PRACTICE EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS




1. A 28-year-old patient presents with symptoms of sadness, loss of interest, and insomnia for

the last three weeks. According to DSM-5-TR, what is the minimum duration of symptoms

required for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder?

A. 2 weeks


B. 1 week


C. 1 month


D. 6 months


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: The DSM-5-TR criteria for Major Depressive Disorder require

that symptoms be present during the same 2-week period and represent a change from

previous functioning.

,2. Which of the following mood stabilizers is most strongly associated with the rare but life-

threatening side effect of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)?

A. Lithium


B. Valproate


C. Carbamazepine


D. Lamotrigine


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Lamotrigine carries a black box warning for Stevens-Johnson

Syndrome and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis, requiring a slow titration to mitigate risk.


3. A patient taking Clozapine must have their Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) monitored

regularly. What is the primary clinical reason for this monitoring?

A. Risk of agranulocytosis


B. Risk of metabolic syndrome


C. Risk of hepatotoxicity


D. Risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: Clozapine is associated with a risk of severe neutropenia

(agranulocytosis), which can be fatal; therefore, ANC monitoring is strictly mandated.

, 4. When differentiating between Bipolar I and Bipolar II Disorder, which of the following is

the defining feature of Bipolar I?

A. Presence of at least one hypomanic episode


B. Presence of at least one manic episode


C. History of MDD episodes only


D. Chronic low mood for at least two years


Answer: B


Conceptual Explanation: Bipolar I requires at least one manic episode. Bipolar II requires

at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode, but never a

manic episode.


5. Which antidepressant is contraindicated in patients with a history of seizure disorders or

eating disorders like Bulimia Nervosa?

A. Fluoxetine


B. Sertraline


C. Bupropion


D. Venlafaxine


Answer: C

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