HM2 Exam 2026 2027 Questions and Correct Answers Graded A+
Latest | Exams of Nursing Comprehensive Assessment
Updated Questions and Verified Answers | 100 Questions | 100% VERIFIED
Introduction
The Hospital Corpsman Second Class examination assesses the professional knowledge and
judgment required of senior hospital corpsmen serving in operational and clinical settings.
This comprehensive assessment spans eight core domains: Military Medicine and Navy
Clinical Operations; Shipboard Medicine and Patient Triage; Preventive Medicine and
Environmental Health; Medical Emergencies and Trauma Care; Pharmacology and
Medication Administration; Medical Records and Administrative Operations; Navy
Regulations and Leadership; and CBRNE Defense and Clinical Execution. Each question that
follows targets a distinct sub-topic within this blueprint, from sick call operations, tactical
combat casualty care, and independent duty responsibilities, through shipboard casualty
care, triage and evacuation planning, water, food, and vector surveillance, heat and cold
injury prevention, and respirator programs, resuscitation, hemorrhage control, airway and
burn management, and chemical eye injury care, medication administration rights, dosage
calculation, and controlled substance accountability, health record documentation, privacy,
and duty status reporting, evaluation, advancement, and risk management, and protective
posture levels, chemical and biological agent recognition, decontamination zones, and
medical countermeasures. Mastery of these domains supports professional advancement
and strengthens hospital corpsman operational execution, casualty care, and force health
protection.
1. The primary purpose of daily sick call in a Navy medical department is to:
A. Complete administrative paperwork for personnel reporting for duty
B. Issue medications to any patient who requests them without evaluation
C. Conduct the periodic health assessment for assigned personnel
D. Screen and evaluate service members with new or worsening complaints, provide
treatment within the corpsman's scope, and refer conditions that exceed that scope to
the medical officer
Correct Answer: D. Screen and evaluate service members with new or worsening
complaints, provide treatment within the corpsman's scope, and refer conditions
that exceed that scope to the medical officer
Rationale: Sick call is the entry point for acute complaints and is where screening,
treatment, and referral decisions are made. Administrative processing, medication
requests without evaluation, and routine readiness assessments occur through other
processes.
2. Which adult vital sign value should prompt immediate referral to a medical officer?
, A. A blood pressure of one hundred eighteen over seventy six
B. A respiratory rate of eight breaths per minute with altered mental status
C. An oral temperature of ninety eight point six degrees Fahrenheit
D. A pulse of seventy two beats per minute
Correct Answer: B. A respiratory rate of eight breaths per minute with altered
mental status
Rationale: Slow, inadequate breathing with a change in mental status signals
respiratory failure or central depression. The other values fall within expected adult
ranges and require no urgent escalation.
3. Documentation in the subjective, objective, assessment, and plan format requires
that the subjective section contain:
A. The measured vital signs and physical examination findings
B. The provider's clinical impression and diagnosis
C. The treatment, medications, and follow up instructions ordered
D. The patient's reported symptoms, history, and concerns in the patient's own words
Correct Answer: D. The patient's reported symptoms, history, and concerns in the
patient's own words
Rationale: Reported information belongs in the subjective section, while measurements
and findings are objective, the impression is the assessment, and orders constitute the
plan.
4. The three phases of tactical combat casualty care in order of occurrence are:
A. Care under fire, tactical field care, and tactical evacuation care
B. Tactical evacuation care, care under fire, and tactical field care
C. Tactical field care, care under fire, and casualty collection
D. Casualty collection, tactical evacuation care, and definitive care
Correct Answer: A. Care under fire, tactical field care, and tactical evacuation care
Rationale: Care under fire addresses the immediate threat, tactical field care provides
treatment once the threat is reduced, and evacuation care continues treatment during
movement. The other sequences reverse the order or substitute phases that do not
exist.
5. The recommended sequence for the tactical field care assessment is:
A. Airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure
B. Circulation, airway, hemorrhage, respiration, and transport
C. Massive hemorrhage, airway, respiration, circulation, and hypothermia with head
injury
D. Hemorrhage, disability, airway, breathing, and exposure
Correct Answer: C. Massive hemorrhage, airway, respiration, circulation, and
hypothermia with head injury
, Rationale: Life threatening bleeding is addressed first, followed by airway, breathing,
circulation, and prevention of hypothermia. The other sequences reorder the priorities
or omit hypothermia, which is a leading cause of preventable death.
6. A tourniquet applied to control extremity hemorrhage should be:
A. Placed directly over the wound and loosened every ten minutes to restore flow
B. Applied loosely and supplemented with a pressure dressing over it
C. Removed once bleeding appears to have stopped at the scene
D. Placed high and tight over the uniform when the source is not visible, tightened until
bleeding stops, marked with the time, and not covered or loosened until the casualty
reaches a provider capable of surgical control
Correct Answer: D. Placed high and tight over the uniform when the source is not
visible, tightened until bleeding stops, marked with the time, and not covered or
loosened until the casualty reaches a provider capable of surgical control
Rationale: Effective placement, tightening to cessation of bleeding, and documentation
of time prevent exsanguination and allow the receiving team to plan care. Loosening,
wrapping over the wound, or removing the device can restart fatal bleeding.
7. The tactical combat casualty care casualty card is used to:
A. Document the tactical situation and enemy activity for the after action review
B. Serve as the patient's permanent outpatient health record
C. Order additional medical supplies for the unit
D. Record the injuries found, treatments rendered with times, and the provider's
identifying information so that care can be continued during evacuation
Correct Answer: D. Record the injuries found, treatments rendered with times,
and the provider's identifying information so that care can be continued during
evacuation
Rationale: The card travels with the casualty and provides continuity of care, including
tourniquet and medication times, to the next level of care. It does not document the
tactical situation or replace the health record or supply requisitions.
8. Casualty precedence categories used to prioritize evacuation include:
A. Immediate, delayed, minimal, and expectant, assigned at the point of injury
B. Class one through class four, based on rank and duty station
C. Urgent, priority, routine, and convenience, with urgent assigned to casualties
requiring lifesaving intervention within a short timeframe
D. Green, yellow, red, and black, assigned by the evacuation platform
Correct Answer: C. Urgent, priority, routine, and convenience, with urgent
assigned to casualties requiring lifesaving intervention within a short timeframe
Rationale: Evacuation precedence determines how quickly movement is required for a
casualty. Immediate and delayed describe treatment triage categories, and the
remaining options confuse classifications that serve other purposes.
9. An independent duty corpsman functions with:
, A. Unrestricted authority to diagnose and treat any condition without oversight
B. Responsibility limited to administrative and supply duties
C. Authority equivalent to a physician for all patient care decisions
D. Expanded clinical responsibilities defined by Navy medicine directives under the
direction of a designated medical officer, including limited authority to order and
administer medications
Correct Answer: D. Expanded clinical responsibilities defined by Navy medicine
directives under the direction of a designated medical officer, including limited
authority to order and administer medications
Rationale: The independent duty role is defined by directives and remains accountable
to a medical officer. Unrestricted authority, administrative only duties, and physician
equivalence misstate the position's authority.
10. When performing an abdominal examination, the correct order of techniques is:
A. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, and inspection
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation, with auscultation placed before
palpation because manipulation alters bowel sounds
C. Percussion, palpation, inspection, and auscultation
D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation
Correct Answer: B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation, with
auscultation placed before palpation because manipulation alters bowel sounds
Rationale: Early auscultation preserves the accuracy of bowel sound findings and
palpation is deferred until last to avoid altering them. The other orders place
manipulating techniques before auscultation.
11. Predeployment health screening for a deploying unit must verify that each
member:
A. Has a physical fitness test score recorded within the quarter
B. Has completed the annual uniform inspection
C. Has submitted a request for the next duty station
D. Has current immunizations, a completed health assessment, a dental readiness
classification, and any required medical waivers documented
Correct Answer: D. Has current immunizations, a completed health assessment, a
dental readiness classification, and any required medical waivers documented
Rationale: Medical and dental readiness requirements determine whether a member
can deploy. Fitness scoring, uniform inspection, and orders processing are
administrative matters that do not establish medical readiness.
12. When a field autoclave cycle is completed, the load may be released only after:
A. The items have cooled enough to be handled
B. The operator has documented the time the cycle ended
C. A visual inspection of the outside of the package has been performed
Latest | Exams of Nursing Comprehensive Assessment
Updated Questions and Verified Answers | 100 Questions | 100% VERIFIED
Introduction
The Hospital Corpsman Second Class examination assesses the professional knowledge and
judgment required of senior hospital corpsmen serving in operational and clinical settings.
This comprehensive assessment spans eight core domains: Military Medicine and Navy
Clinical Operations; Shipboard Medicine and Patient Triage; Preventive Medicine and
Environmental Health; Medical Emergencies and Trauma Care; Pharmacology and
Medication Administration; Medical Records and Administrative Operations; Navy
Regulations and Leadership; and CBRNE Defense and Clinical Execution. Each question that
follows targets a distinct sub-topic within this blueprint, from sick call operations, tactical
combat casualty care, and independent duty responsibilities, through shipboard casualty
care, triage and evacuation planning, water, food, and vector surveillance, heat and cold
injury prevention, and respirator programs, resuscitation, hemorrhage control, airway and
burn management, and chemical eye injury care, medication administration rights, dosage
calculation, and controlled substance accountability, health record documentation, privacy,
and duty status reporting, evaluation, advancement, and risk management, and protective
posture levels, chemical and biological agent recognition, decontamination zones, and
medical countermeasures. Mastery of these domains supports professional advancement
and strengthens hospital corpsman operational execution, casualty care, and force health
protection.
1. The primary purpose of daily sick call in a Navy medical department is to:
A. Complete administrative paperwork for personnel reporting for duty
B. Issue medications to any patient who requests them without evaluation
C. Conduct the periodic health assessment for assigned personnel
D. Screen and evaluate service members with new or worsening complaints, provide
treatment within the corpsman's scope, and refer conditions that exceed that scope to
the medical officer
Correct Answer: D. Screen and evaluate service members with new or worsening
complaints, provide treatment within the corpsman's scope, and refer conditions
that exceed that scope to the medical officer
Rationale: Sick call is the entry point for acute complaints and is where screening,
treatment, and referral decisions are made. Administrative processing, medication
requests without evaluation, and routine readiness assessments occur through other
processes.
2. Which adult vital sign value should prompt immediate referral to a medical officer?
, A. A blood pressure of one hundred eighteen over seventy six
B. A respiratory rate of eight breaths per minute with altered mental status
C. An oral temperature of ninety eight point six degrees Fahrenheit
D. A pulse of seventy two beats per minute
Correct Answer: B. A respiratory rate of eight breaths per minute with altered
mental status
Rationale: Slow, inadequate breathing with a change in mental status signals
respiratory failure or central depression. The other values fall within expected adult
ranges and require no urgent escalation.
3. Documentation in the subjective, objective, assessment, and plan format requires
that the subjective section contain:
A. The measured vital signs and physical examination findings
B. The provider's clinical impression and diagnosis
C. The treatment, medications, and follow up instructions ordered
D. The patient's reported symptoms, history, and concerns in the patient's own words
Correct Answer: D. The patient's reported symptoms, history, and concerns in the
patient's own words
Rationale: Reported information belongs in the subjective section, while measurements
and findings are objective, the impression is the assessment, and orders constitute the
plan.
4. The three phases of tactical combat casualty care in order of occurrence are:
A. Care under fire, tactical field care, and tactical evacuation care
B. Tactical evacuation care, care under fire, and tactical field care
C. Tactical field care, care under fire, and casualty collection
D. Casualty collection, tactical evacuation care, and definitive care
Correct Answer: A. Care under fire, tactical field care, and tactical evacuation care
Rationale: Care under fire addresses the immediate threat, tactical field care provides
treatment once the threat is reduced, and evacuation care continues treatment during
movement. The other sequences reverse the order or substitute phases that do not
exist.
5. The recommended sequence for the tactical field care assessment is:
A. Airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure
B. Circulation, airway, hemorrhage, respiration, and transport
C. Massive hemorrhage, airway, respiration, circulation, and hypothermia with head
injury
D. Hemorrhage, disability, airway, breathing, and exposure
Correct Answer: C. Massive hemorrhage, airway, respiration, circulation, and
hypothermia with head injury
, Rationale: Life threatening bleeding is addressed first, followed by airway, breathing,
circulation, and prevention of hypothermia. The other sequences reorder the priorities
or omit hypothermia, which is a leading cause of preventable death.
6. A tourniquet applied to control extremity hemorrhage should be:
A. Placed directly over the wound and loosened every ten minutes to restore flow
B. Applied loosely and supplemented with a pressure dressing over it
C. Removed once bleeding appears to have stopped at the scene
D. Placed high and tight over the uniform when the source is not visible, tightened until
bleeding stops, marked with the time, and not covered or loosened until the casualty
reaches a provider capable of surgical control
Correct Answer: D. Placed high and tight over the uniform when the source is not
visible, tightened until bleeding stops, marked with the time, and not covered or
loosened until the casualty reaches a provider capable of surgical control
Rationale: Effective placement, tightening to cessation of bleeding, and documentation
of time prevent exsanguination and allow the receiving team to plan care. Loosening,
wrapping over the wound, or removing the device can restart fatal bleeding.
7. The tactical combat casualty care casualty card is used to:
A. Document the tactical situation and enemy activity for the after action review
B. Serve as the patient's permanent outpatient health record
C. Order additional medical supplies for the unit
D. Record the injuries found, treatments rendered with times, and the provider's
identifying information so that care can be continued during evacuation
Correct Answer: D. Record the injuries found, treatments rendered with times,
and the provider's identifying information so that care can be continued during
evacuation
Rationale: The card travels with the casualty and provides continuity of care, including
tourniquet and medication times, to the next level of care. It does not document the
tactical situation or replace the health record or supply requisitions.
8. Casualty precedence categories used to prioritize evacuation include:
A. Immediate, delayed, minimal, and expectant, assigned at the point of injury
B. Class one through class four, based on rank and duty station
C. Urgent, priority, routine, and convenience, with urgent assigned to casualties
requiring lifesaving intervention within a short timeframe
D. Green, yellow, red, and black, assigned by the evacuation platform
Correct Answer: C. Urgent, priority, routine, and convenience, with urgent
assigned to casualties requiring lifesaving intervention within a short timeframe
Rationale: Evacuation precedence determines how quickly movement is required for a
casualty. Immediate and delayed describe treatment triage categories, and the
remaining options confuse classifications that serve other purposes.
9. An independent duty corpsman functions with:
, A. Unrestricted authority to diagnose and treat any condition without oversight
B. Responsibility limited to administrative and supply duties
C. Authority equivalent to a physician for all patient care decisions
D. Expanded clinical responsibilities defined by Navy medicine directives under the
direction of a designated medical officer, including limited authority to order and
administer medications
Correct Answer: D. Expanded clinical responsibilities defined by Navy medicine
directives under the direction of a designated medical officer, including limited
authority to order and administer medications
Rationale: The independent duty role is defined by directives and remains accountable
to a medical officer. Unrestricted authority, administrative only duties, and physician
equivalence misstate the position's authority.
10. When performing an abdominal examination, the correct order of techniques is:
A. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, and inspection
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation, with auscultation placed before
palpation because manipulation alters bowel sounds
C. Percussion, palpation, inspection, and auscultation
D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation
Correct Answer: B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation, with
auscultation placed before palpation because manipulation alters bowel sounds
Rationale: Early auscultation preserves the accuracy of bowel sound findings and
palpation is deferred until last to avoid altering them. The other orders place
manipulating techniques before auscultation.
11. Predeployment health screening for a deploying unit must verify that each
member:
A. Has a physical fitness test score recorded within the quarter
B. Has completed the annual uniform inspection
C. Has submitted a request for the next duty station
D. Has current immunizations, a completed health assessment, a dental readiness
classification, and any required medical waivers documented
Correct Answer: D. Has current immunizations, a completed health assessment, a
dental readiness classification, and any required medical waivers documented
Rationale: Medical and dental readiness requirements determine whether a member
can deploy. Fitness scoring, uniform inspection, and orders processing are
administrative matters that do not establish medical readiness.
12. When a field autoclave cycle is completed, the load may be released only after:
A. The items have cooled enough to be handled
B. The operator has documented the time the cycle ended
C. A visual inspection of the outside of the package has been performed
