NURS 5433 Week 4 Midterm Exam Family II FNP Practice Test
Bank | UTA Actual Exam Style Questions & Verified Clinical
Rationales 2026
Ace your high-stakes graduate nursing evaluation with this comprehensive NURS 5433
Family Nurse Practitioner II Week 4 midterm exam practice test bank tailored for the
University of Texas at Arlington. Master high-yield primary care clinical domains,
including evidence-based chronic disease management, advanced differential
diagnosis for adult and geriatric populations, complex multi-system disorders,
and prescriptive authority drug selections. Every verified question features a highly
detailed clinical rationale designed to sharpen your diagnostic reasoning skills, align
with UTA program metrics, and guarantee board certification readiness.
1. A 62-year-old client reports gradual loss of peripheral vision over the past year.
Tonometry reveals an IOP of 28 mm Hg. Which condition is most likely?
A) Cataracts
B) Primary open-angle glaucoma
C) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
D) Macular degeneration
Rationale: Primary open-angle glaucoma is insidious, painless, and characterized by
elevated IOP with gradual peripheral vision loss. Acute angle-closure presents with severe
pain and sudden onset.
2. Which class of medication is typically first-line for lowering intraocular pressure
in open-angle glaucoma?
A) Oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
B) Topical beta-blockers such as timolol
,C) Systemic corticosteroids
D) Topical antihistamines
Rationale: Topical beta-blockers (e.g., timolol) reduce aqueous humor production and are
first-line for open-angle glaucoma. Oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are reserved for
acute or refractory cases.
3. Which adverse effect should the nurse practitioner warn a client about when
prescribing topical timolol for glaucoma?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Bradycardia and bronchospasm
C) Hypertension
D) Mydriasis
Rationale: Topical beta-blockers can be systemically absorbed and cause bradycardia,
hypotension, and bronchospasm. They should be used cautiously in clients with asthma or
heart block.
4. A client presents with a painful, red eye, decreased vision, and a hazy cornea.
Which condition is an ophthalmologic emergency?
A) Open-angle glaucoma
B) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C) Chronic conjunctivitis
D) Cataract
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an emergency requiring immediate IOP
reduction. Findings include severe pain, decreased vision, hazy cornea, fixed mid-dilated
pupil, and nausea.
,5. Which medication is used emergently to reduce intraocular pressure in acute
angle-closure glaucoma?
A) Topical antihistamine
B) IV mannitol or oral acetazolamide
C) Oral prednisone
D) Topical antibiotic
Rationale: IV mannitol (osmotic diuretic) and acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase
inhibitor) rapidly reduce IOP in acute angle-closure glaucoma. Definitive treatment is laser
iridotomy.
6. A 70-year-old client reports difficulty seeing at night and glare from headlights.
Slit lamp exam reveals lens opacity. Which condition is most likely?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataract
C) Macular degeneration
D) Retinopathy
Rationale: Cataracts present with painless, progressive vision loss, glare, halos, and
difficulty with night vision. Lens opacity is seen on slit lamp exam.
7. Which condition is the leading cause of irreversible blindness in older adults and
affects central vision?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataracts
, C) Age-related macular degeneration
D) Diabetic retinopathy
Rationale: Age-related macular degeneration affects the macula and causes central
vision loss. It is the leading cause of irreversible blindness in older adults in developed
countries.
8. Which type of macular degeneration is characterized by rapid vision loss due to
abnormal blood vessel growth?
A) Dry macular degeneration
B) Wet macular degeneration
C) Atrophic macular degeneration
D) Non-exudative macular degeneration
Rationale: Wet (neovascular) macular degeneration involves abnormal blood vessel
growth beneath the retina, leading to rapid vision loss. Dry AMD is more common and
progresses slowly.
9. A client with diabetes reports blurry vision and floaters. Fundoscopic exam
reveals microaneurysms and dot hemorrhages. Which condition is most likely?
A) Cataracts
B) Glaucoma
C) Diabetic retinopathy
D) Macular degeneration
Rationale: Diabetic retinopathy presents with microaneurysms, dot-blot hemorrhages,
and neovascularization. Tight glycemic control and annual dilated eye exams are
essential.
Bank | UTA Actual Exam Style Questions & Verified Clinical
Rationales 2026
Ace your high-stakes graduate nursing evaluation with this comprehensive NURS 5433
Family Nurse Practitioner II Week 4 midterm exam practice test bank tailored for the
University of Texas at Arlington. Master high-yield primary care clinical domains,
including evidence-based chronic disease management, advanced differential
diagnosis for adult and geriatric populations, complex multi-system disorders,
and prescriptive authority drug selections. Every verified question features a highly
detailed clinical rationale designed to sharpen your diagnostic reasoning skills, align
with UTA program metrics, and guarantee board certification readiness.
1. A 62-year-old client reports gradual loss of peripheral vision over the past year.
Tonometry reveals an IOP of 28 mm Hg. Which condition is most likely?
A) Cataracts
B) Primary open-angle glaucoma
C) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
D) Macular degeneration
Rationale: Primary open-angle glaucoma is insidious, painless, and characterized by
elevated IOP with gradual peripheral vision loss. Acute angle-closure presents with severe
pain and sudden onset.
2. Which class of medication is typically first-line for lowering intraocular pressure
in open-angle glaucoma?
A) Oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
B) Topical beta-blockers such as timolol
,C) Systemic corticosteroids
D) Topical antihistamines
Rationale: Topical beta-blockers (e.g., timolol) reduce aqueous humor production and are
first-line for open-angle glaucoma. Oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are reserved for
acute or refractory cases.
3. Which adverse effect should the nurse practitioner warn a client about when
prescribing topical timolol for glaucoma?
A) Increased heart rate
B) Bradycardia and bronchospasm
C) Hypertension
D) Mydriasis
Rationale: Topical beta-blockers can be systemically absorbed and cause bradycardia,
hypotension, and bronchospasm. They should be used cautiously in clients with asthma or
heart block.
4. A client presents with a painful, red eye, decreased vision, and a hazy cornea.
Which condition is an ophthalmologic emergency?
A) Open-angle glaucoma
B) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C) Chronic conjunctivitis
D) Cataract
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an emergency requiring immediate IOP
reduction. Findings include severe pain, decreased vision, hazy cornea, fixed mid-dilated
pupil, and nausea.
,5. Which medication is used emergently to reduce intraocular pressure in acute
angle-closure glaucoma?
A) Topical antihistamine
B) IV mannitol or oral acetazolamide
C) Oral prednisone
D) Topical antibiotic
Rationale: IV mannitol (osmotic diuretic) and acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase
inhibitor) rapidly reduce IOP in acute angle-closure glaucoma. Definitive treatment is laser
iridotomy.
6. A 70-year-old client reports difficulty seeing at night and glare from headlights.
Slit lamp exam reveals lens opacity. Which condition is most likely?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataract
C) Macular degeneration
D) Retinopathy
Rationale: Cataracts present with painless, progressive vision loss, glare, halos, and
difficulty with night vision. Lens opacity is seen on slit lamp exam.
7. Which condition is the leading cause of irreversible blindness in older adults and
affects central vision?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataracts
, C) Age-related macular degeneration
D) Diabetic retinopathy
Rationale: Age-related macular degeneration affects the macula and causes central
vision loss. It is the leading cause of irreversible blindness in older adults in developed
countries.
8. Which type of macular degeneration is characterized by rapid vision loss due to
abnormal blood vessel growth?
A) Dry macular degeneration
B) Wet macular degeneration
C) Atrophic macular degeneration
D) Non-exudative macular degeneration
Rationale: Wet (neovascular) macular degeneration involves abnormal blood vessel
growth beneath the retina, leading to rapid vision loss. Dry AMD is more common and
progresses slowly.
9. A client with diabetes reports blurry vision and floaters. Fundoscopic exam
reveals microaneurysms and dot hemorrhages. Which condition is most likely?
A) Cataracts
B) Glaucoma
C) Diabetic retinopathy
D) Macular degeneration
Rationale: Diabetic retinopathy presents with microaneurysms, dot-blot hemorrhages,
and neovascularization. Tight glycemic control and annual dilated eye exams are
essential.
