ATI Capstone Final Exam NUR 2811 Practice Test Bank | Complete
Questions & Graded A+ Detailed Clinical Rationales
Conquer your ultimate program benchmark and secure your graduation sign-off with this
newly released ATI Capstone Final Exam NUR 2811 practice test bank. Master high-
yield, across-the-board nursing domains including advanced adult medical-surgical
alterations, critical pharmacology safety, maternal-newborn emergencies,
pediatric developmental milestones, and management of care management. Every
verified question features a highly thorough, evidence-based clinical rationale aligned
with the Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) framework to guarantee Level 3 proficiency on
your final attempt.
1. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation. Which finding
indicates the patient may be ready for weaning?
A. PaO2 of 50 mm Hg on 60% FiO2
B. Rapid shallow breathing index (RSBI) of 80
C. Respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min
D. Vital capacity of 5 mL/kg
Answer: B. Rapid shallow breathing index (RSBI) of 80
Rationale: An RSBI less than 105 indicates readiness for weaning. RSBI is calculated by
dividing respiratory rate by tidal volume in liters. A lower RSBI predicts successful
extubation.
2. A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected bowel obstruction. Which finding is
most concerning?
A. Hyperactive bowel sounds
B. Absent bowel sounds with abdominal distention
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Constipation
Answer: B. Absent bowel sounds with abdominal distention
,Rationale: Absent bowel sounds with distention indicate paralytic ileus or late obstruction
with potential ischemia. This requires immediate intervention.
3. A patient with sepsis is receiving norepinephrine. Which finding indicates the
medication is effective?
A. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mm Hg
C. Heart rate of 120 bpm
D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Answer: B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mm Hg
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor used to maintain MAP ≥65 mm Hg in sepsis.
Adequate MAP ensures organ perfusion.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which
ventilator setting is most appropriate?
A. High tidal volume
B. Low tidal volume
C. High peak inspiratory pressure
D. Low PEEP
Answer: B. Low tidal volume
Rationale: Lung-protective ventilation with low tidal volumes (4–6 mL/kg) reduces
barotrauma and mortality in ARDS.
5. A patient with increased intracranial pressure is prescribed mannitol. Which finding
indicates therapeutic effect?
A. Increased urine output
B. Decreased urine output
,C. Increased intracranial pressure
D. Decreased serum osmolality
Answer: A. Increased urine output
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces ICP by drawing fluid from the brain
into the vasculature, leading to increased urine output.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient with a new onset of atrial fibrillation. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate of 110 bpm
B. Blood pressure of 88/50 mm Hg
C. Mild palpitations
D. Fatigue
Answer: B. Blood pressure of 88/50 mm Hg
Rationale: Hemodynamic instability with hypotension requires immediate intervention,
possibly synchronized cardioversion.
7. A patient with a pulmonary artery catheter has a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure
(PAOP) of 22 mm Hg. Which condition does this indicate?
A. Hypovolemia
B. Left ventricular failure
C. Right ventricular failure
D. Pulmonary hypertension
Answer: B. Left ventricular failure
Rationale: Elevated PAOP (>18 mm Hg) indicates left ventricular failure or fluid overload.
8. A nurse is caring for a patient with a new tracheostomy. Which finding indicates a
need for immediate suctioning?
, A. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
C. Audible secretions and restlessness
D. Clear breath sounds
Answer: C. Audible secretions and restlessness
Rationale: Audible secretions, restlessness, and decreased oxygen saturation indicate the
need for suctioning.
9. A patient with acute kidney injury has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
intervention should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Administer calcium gluconate
B. Administer insulin and glucose
C. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
D. Prepare for dialysis
Answer: A. Administer calcium gluconate
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is given first to stabilize the myocardium. Other
interventions shift or remove potassium but do not provide immediate cardiac protection.
10. A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax. Which
finding is expected?
A. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side
B. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
C. Bradypnea
D. Hypertension
Answer: B. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax causes air accumulation that pushes mediastinal
structures away from the affected side.
Questions & Graded A+ Detailed Clinical Rationales
Conquer your ultimate program benchmark and secure your graduation sign-off with this
newly released ATI Capstone Final Exam NUR 2811 practice test bank. Master high-
yield, across-the-board nursing domains including advanced adult medical-surgical
alterations, critical pharmacology safety, maternal-newborn emergencies,
pediatric developmental milestones, and management of care management. Every
verified question features a highly thorough, evidence-based clinical rationale aligned
with the Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) framework to guarantee Level 3 proficiency on
your final attempt.
1. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation. Which finding
indicates the patient may be ready for weaning?
A. PaO2 of 50 mm Hg on 60% FiO2
B. Rapid shallow breathing index (RSBI) of 80
C. Respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min
D. Vital capacity of 5 mL/kg
Answer: B. Rapid shallow breathing index (RSBI) of 80
Rationale: An RSBI less than 105 indicates readiness for weaning. RSBI is calculated by
dividing respiratory rate by tidal volume in liters. A lower RSBI predicts successful
extubation.
2. A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected bowel obstruction. Which finding is
most concerning?
A. Hyperactive bowel sounds
B. Absent bowel sounds with abdominal distention
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Constipation
Answer: B. Absent bowel sounds with abdominal distention
,Rationale: Absent bowel sounds with distention indicate paralytic ileus or late obstruction
with potential ischemia. This requires immediate intervention.
3. A patient with sepsis is receiving norepinephrine. Which finding indicates the
medication is effective?
A. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg
B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mm Hg
C. Heart rate of 120 bpm
D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Answer: B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mm Hg
Rationale: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor used to maintain MAP ≥65 mm Hg in sepsis.
Adequate MAP ensures organ perfusion.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which
ventilator setting is most appropriate?
A. High tidal volume
B. Low tidal volume
C. High peak inspiratory pressure
D. Low PEEP
Answer: B. Low tidal volume
Rationale: Lung-protective ventilation with low tidal volumes (4–6 mL/kg) reduces
barotrauma and mortality in ARDS.
5. A patient with increased intracranial pressure is prescribed mannitol. Which finding
indicates therapeutic effect?
A. Increased urine output
B. Decreased urine output
,C. Increased intracranial pressure
D. Decreased serum osmolality
Answer: A. Increased urine output
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces ICP by drawing fluid from the brain
into the vasculature, leading to increased urine output.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient with a new onset of atrial fibrillation. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate of 110 bpm
B. Blood pressure of 88/50 mm Hg
C. Mild palpitations
D. Fatigue
Answer: B. Blood pressure of 88/50 mm Hg
Rationale: Hemodynamic instability with hypotension requires immediate intervention,
possibly synchronized cardioversion.
7. A patient with a pulmonary artery catheter has a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure
(PAOP) of 22 mm Hg. Which condition does this indicate?
A. Hypovolemia
B. Left ventricular failure
C. Right ventricular failure
D. Pulmonary hypertension
Answer: B. Left ventricular failure
Rationale: Elevated PAOP (>18 mm Hg) indicates left ventricular failure or fluid overload.
8. A nurse is caring for a patient with a new tracheostomy. Which finding indicates a
need for immediate suctioning?
, A. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
C. Audible secretions and restlessness
D. Clear breath sounds
Answer: C. Audible secretions and restlessness
Rationale: Audible secretions, restlessness, and decreased oxygen saturation indicate the
need for suctioning.
9. A patient with acute kidney injury has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
intervention should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Administer calcium gluconate
B. Administer insulin and glucose
C. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
D. Prepare for dialysis
Answer: A. Administer calcium gluconate
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is given first to stabilize the myocardium. Other
interventions shift or remove potassium but do not provide immediate cardiac protection.
10. A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax. Which
finding is expected?
A. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side
B. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
C. Bradypnea
D. Hypertension
Answer: B. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax causes air accumulation that pushes mediastinal
structures away from the affected side.
