• HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI MED SURG 3 LATEST
2025/ 2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 350 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH WELL-ELABORATED RATIONALES/ GRADED
A+| EVOLVE HESI MEDICAL SURGICAL LATEST
EXAM (BRAND NEW!!)
The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which
finding should the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
A) An increase in abdominal girth.
B) Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
P 1
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
C) Decreased bowel sounds.
D) Difficulty in handwriting. - Correct Answer :D) Difficulty in handwriting.
A daily record in handwriting may provide evidence of progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading
to coma (D). (A) is a sign of ascites. (B) are not seen with hepatic encephalopathy. (C) does not indicate an
increase in serum ammonia level which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A) Give 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
B) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
C) Arrange a consultation with the dietician.
D) Teach about the side effects of diuretics. - Correct Answer :B) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
Hypokalemia (normal 3.5 to 5 mEq/L) causes changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, so it is most
important for the nurse to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring (B) to identify ventricular ectopy or other life-
threatening dysrhythmias. Potassium chloride (A) should be given after cardiac monitoring is initiated so that the
effects of potassium replacement on the cardiac rhythm can be monitored. (C and D) should be implemented
when the client is stable.
The nurse is planning care to prevent complication for a client with multiple myeloma. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to include?
A) Safety precautions during activity.
B) Assess for changes in size of lymph nodes.
C) Maintain a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L per day.
D) Administer narcotic analgesic around the clock. - Correct Answer :C) Maintain a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L per
day.
Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells that infiltrate bone causing demineralization and
hypercalcemia, so maintaining a urinary output of 1.5 to 2 L per day requires an intake of 3 to 4 L (C) to promote
excretion of serum calcium. Although the client is at risk for pathologic fractures due to diffuse osteoporosis,
mobilization and weight bearing (A) should be encouraged to promote bone reabsorption of circulating calcium,
P 2
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
which can cause renal complications. (B) is a component of ongoing assessment. Chronic pain management (D)
should be included in the plan of care, but prevention of complications related to hypercalcemia is most
important.
A client has a staging procedure for cancer of the breast and ask the nurse which type of breast cancer has the
poorest prognosis. Which information should the nurse offer the client?
A) Stage II.
B) Invasive infiltrating ductal carcinoma.
C) T1N0M0.
D) Inflammatory with peau d'orange. - Correct Answer :D) Inflammatory with peau d'orange.
Inflammatory breast cancer, which has a thickened appearance like an orange peel (peau d'orange), is the most
aggressive form of breast malignancies (D). Staging classifies cancer by the extension or spread of the disease,
and (A) indicates limited local spread. (B) indicates cancer cells have spread from the ducts into the surrounding
breast tissue only. TNM classification is used to indicate the extent of the disease process according to tumor
size, regional spread lymph nodes involvement, and metastasis, and (C) indicates early cancer with small in situ
involvement, no lymph node involvement, and no distant metastases.
A client who is sexually active with several partners requests an intrauterine device (IUD) as a contraceptive
method. Which information should the nurse provide?
A) Using an IUD offers no protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STD), which increase the risk for
pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B) Getting pregnant while using an IUD is common and is not the best contraceptive choice.
C) Relying on an IUD may be a safer choice for monogamous partners, but a barrier method provides a better
option in preventing STD transmission.
D) Selecting a contraceptive device should consider choosing a successful method used in the past. - Correct
Answer :A) Using an IUD offers no protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STD), which increase the
risk for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
The use of an IUD provides the client with no protection from STDs (A). While pregnancy rates with the use of an
IUD are somewhat higher, (B) is not therapeutic, but judgmental. (C) is judgmental and does not provide the
client any information about use of an IUD. While talking about contraceptives may include (D), it is does not
provide the best information to maintain the client's health.
P 3
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
A client reports unprotected sexual intercourse one week ago and is worried about HIV exposure. An initial HIV
antibody screen (ELISA) is obtained. The nurse teaches the client that seroconversion to HIV positive relies on
antibody production by B lymphocytes after exposure to the virus. When should the nurse recommend the client
return for repeat blood testing?
A) 6 to 18 months.
B) 1 to 12 months.
C) 1 to 18 weeks.
D) 6 to 12 weeks. - Correct Answer :D) 6 to 12 weeks.
Although the HIV antigen is detectable approximately 2 weeks after exposure, seroconversion to HIV positive
may take up to 6 to 12 weeks (D) after exposure, so the client should return to repeat the serum screen for the
presence of HIV antibodies during that time frame. (A) will delay treatment if the client tests positive. (B and C)
may provide inaccurate results because the time frame maybe too early to reevaluate the client.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual period, painful
intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the
client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. - Correct Answer :B) Inability to get pregnant.
Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are common symptoms of endometriosis, which
is the abnormal displacement of endometrial tissue in the dependent areas of the pelvic peritoneum. A history of
infertility (B) is another common finding associated with endometriosis. Although (A, C, and D) are common,
nonspecific gynecological complaints, the most common complaints of the client with endometriosis are pain
and infertility.
An elderly male client comes to the geriatric screening clinic complaining of pain in his left calf. The nurse notices
a reddened area on the calf of his right leg which is warm to the touch and suspects it might be
thrombophlebitis. Which type of pain should further confirm this suspicion?
A) Pain in the calf awakening him from a sound sleep.
B) Calf pain on exertion which stops when standing in one place.
P 4
EXAM
EVOLVE ELSEVIER HESI MED SURG 3 LATEST
2025/ 2026 TEST BANK| COMPLETE 350 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH WELL-ELABORATED RATIONALES/ GRADED
A+| EVOLVE HESI MEDICAL SURGICAL LATEST
EXAM (BRAND NEW!!)
The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which
finding should the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
A) An increase in abdominal girth.
B) Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
P 1
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
C) Decreased bowel sounds.
D) Difficulty in handwriting. - Correct Answer :D) Difficulty in handwriting.
A daily record in handwriting may provide evidence of progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading
to coma (D). (A) is a sign of ascites. (B) are not seen with hepatic encephalopathy. (C) does not indicate an
increase in serum ammonia level which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A) Give 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
B) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
C) Arrange a consultation with the dietician.
D) Teach about the side effects of diuretics. - Correct Answer :B) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
Hypokalemia (normal 3.5 to 5 mEq/L) causes changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, so it is most
important for the nurse to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring (B) to identify ventricular ectopy or other life-
threatening dysrhythmias. Potassium chloride (A) should be given after cardiac monitoring is initiated so that the
effects of potassium replacement on the cardiac rhythm can be monitored. (C and D) should be implemented
when the client is stable.
The nurse is planning care to prevent complication for a client with multiple myeloma. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to include?
A) Safety precautions during activity.
B) Assess for changes in size of lymph nodes.
C) Maintain a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L per day.
D) Administer narcotic analgesic around the clock. - Correct Answer :C) Maintain a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L per
day.
Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells that infiltrate bone causing demineralization and
hypercalcemia, so maintaining a urinary output of 1.5 to 2 L per day requires an intake of 3 to 4 L (C) to promote
excretion of serum calcium. Although the client is at risk for pathologic fractures due to diffuse osteoporosis,
mobilization and weight bearing (A) should be encouraged to promote bone reabsorption of circulating calcium,
P 2
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
which can cause renal complications. (B) is a component of ongoing assessment. Chronic pain management (D)
should be included in the plan of care, but prevention of complications related to hypercalcemia is most
important.
A client has a staging procedure for cancer of the breast and ask the nurse which type of breast cancer has the
poorest prognosis. Which information should the nurse offer the client?
A) Stage II.
B) Invasive infiltrating ductal carcinoma.
C) T1N0M0.
D) Inflammatory with peau d'orange. - Correct Answer :D) Inflammatory with peau d'orange.
Inflammatory breast cancer, which has a thickened appearance like an orange peel (peau d'orange), is the most
aggressive form of breast malignancies (D). Staging classifies cancer by the extension or spread of the disease,
and (A) indicates limited local spread. (B) indicates cancer cells have spread from the ducts into the surrounding
breast tissue only. TNM classification is used to indicate the extent of the disease process according to tumor
size, regional spread lymph nodes involvement, and metastasis, and (C) indicates early cancer with small in situ
involvement, no lymph node involvement, and no distant metastases.
A client who is sexually active with several partners requests an intrauterine device (IUD) as a contraceptive
method. Which information should the nurse provide?
A) Using an IUD offers no protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STD), which increase the risk for
pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B) Getting pregnant while using an IUD is common and is not the best contraceptive choice.
C) Relying on an IUD may be a safer choice for monogamous partners, but a barrier method provides a better
option in preventing STD transmission.
D) Selecting a contraceptive device should consider choosing a successful method used in the past. - Correct
Answer :A) Using an IUD offers no protection against sexually transmitted diseases (STD), which increase the
risk for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
The use of an IUD provides the client with no protection from STDs (A). While pregnancy rates with the use of an
IUD are somewhat higher, (B) is not therapeutic, but judgmental. (C) is judgmental and does not provide the
client any information about use of an IUD. While talking about contraceptives may include (D), it is does not
provide the best information to maintain the client's health.
P 3
, • HESI MED SURG 09/14/2026
EXAM
A client reports unprotected sexual intercourse one week ago and is worried about HIV exposure. An initial HIV
antibody screen (ELISA) is obtained. The nurse teaches the client that seroconversion to HIV positive relies on
antibody production by B lymphocytes after exposure to the virus. When should the nurse recommend the client
return for repeat blood testing?
A) 6 to 18 months.
B) 1 to 12 months.
C) 1 to 18 weeks.
D) 6 to 12 weeks. - Correct Answer :D) 6 to 12 weeks.
Although the HIV antigen is detectable approximately 2 weeks after exposure, seroconversion to HIV positive
may take up to 6 to 12 weeks (D) after exposure, so the client should return to repeat the serum screen for the
presence of HIV antibodies during that time frame. (A) will delay treatment if the client tests positive. (B and C)
may provide inaccurate results because the time frame maybe too early to reevaluate the client.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual period, painful
intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the
client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. - Correct Answer :B) Inability to get pregnant.
Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are common symptoms of endometriosis, which
is the abnormal displacement of endometrial tissue in the dependent areas of the pelvic peritoneum. A history of
infertility (B) is another common finding associated with endometriosis. Although (A, C, and D) are common,
nonspecific gynecological complaints, the most common complaints of the client with endometriosis are pain
and infertility.
An elderly male client comes to the geriatric screening clinic complaining of pain in his left calf. The nurse notices
a reddened area on the calf of his right leg which is warm to the touch and suspects it might be
thrombophlebitis. Which type of pain should further confirm this suspicion?
A) Pain in the calf awakening him from a sound sleep.
B) Calf pain on exertion which stops when standing in one place.
P 4
